a patient arrives at the urgent care facility with a swollen ankle. anteroposterior and lateral view x-rays of the ankle are taken to determine whether the patient has a fractured ankle. what cpt® code(s) is/are reported?

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Answer 1

73600 is the cpt® code that is reported. This is because anteroposterior and lateral view x-rays of the ankle are taken to determine whether the patient has a fractured ankle as the patient arrives at the urgent care facility with a swollen ankle.

Medical professionals record medical, surgical, and diagnostic operations and services to organizations including doctors, health insurance providers, and accreditation bodies using the Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) code set.

Like other indices, the CPT Index may be employed. You may search it by both method and body part to find difficult-to-code processes, services, and tests. A skilled medical coder, however, will never code from the index. It only serves as a tool for locating relevant information.

Look for X-ray/Ankle in the CPT® Index, and you'll be directed to the range 73600-73610. Anteroposterior and lateral images were obtained, therefore CPT® code 73600 is accurate.

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Related Questions

the nurse is performing chest auscultation for a patient with asthma. how does the nurse describe the high-pitched, sibilant, musical sounds that are heard?

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The nurse is performing chest auscultation for a patient with asthma. The nurse describe the Wheezes high-pitched, sibilant, musical sounds that are heard.

Asthma- A long-term illness that causes the bronchial airways in the lungs to shrink and swell, making breathing challenging. Wheezing, coughing, chest tightness, shortness of breath, and fast breathing are some of the symptoms.

Bronchial airways- The broad tubes known as bronchi link to the trachea (windpipe) and send air to our left and right lungs, respectively. They are within of us. The word "bronchus" is pluralized as "bronchi." Our left lung receives air through the left bronchus. Our right lung receives air through the right bronchus.

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which professional is most likely to make use of amperes and candelas? athletic coach athletic coach nurse practitioner nurse practitioner electrical engineer electrical engineer marine biologist

Answers

Electrical engineer

the nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing hypotension. the nurse is concerned about the significant drop in the client's blood pressure and decides to contact the client's health care provider. when preparing a report for the health care provider using the sbar format, what will the nurse include? select all that apply.

Answers

"Can you tell me what foods you prefer to eat and what your family is

bringing you?" will the nurse include the nurse

What nursing care behavior by the nurse engenders a client's trust in the nurse?

A nurse answers the client's questions about an upcoming test in a calm gentle voice while making eye contact with the client.

The SBAR (Situation-Background-Assessment-Recommendation) technique offers a framework for discussion of a patient's condition among members of the healthcare team.

SBAR is a simple, concrete framework that can be used to frame any conversation, especially those that are urgent, and call for a clinician's immediate attention and action.

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a pregnant client who is planning to have genetic testing asks the nurse when she should schedule her amniocentesis. what should the nurse tell the client?

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GeneticGenetic  amniocentesis is usually done between weeks 15 and 20 of pregnancy.

What is always taken into account in a genetic analysis?

The term "DNA test" can also refer to genetic testing. This particular test can spot alterations to your body's proteins, chromosomes, or genes. A sample of your blood, skin, hair, tissue, or amniotic fluid is required for genetic testing. Your genetic issue may be confirmed or ruled out by the test.

Amniocentesis done before week 15 pregnancy has been associated with a higher rate of complications.

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a resident of a nursing home keeps trying to get out of bed to use the bathroom, despite having a urinary catheter in place. which intervention will best preserve this client's safety and could be used as an alternative to restraints?

Answers

Physical safety hazards, chemical hazards, biological hazards, physical hazards, and ergonomic hazard factors

Which intervention is most essential for maintaining the safety of a restrained client?

A client with a restraint should be reviewed every 30 minutes, not every 2 hours, to ensure client safety. The restraint should not be too friendly or too loose. The nurse should check the client's circulation and confirm that there is room to insert two finger widths between the control and the client.

What is the most essential thing to keep in mind to ensure your security at the workplace?

The best way to keep yourself safe is to be mindful of your surroundings. The more aware you are with your tasks and workplace, the more aware you'll be of the potential dangers. Knowing your surroundings and being aware of potential threats will help you and your co-workers avoid unnecessary or dangerous conditions.

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the nurse takes a call from a worried client who was seen several hours earlier for her 35-weeks' gestation visit, which included a pelvic examination. which instruction should the nurse prioritize if the client is reporting a small amount of vaginal spotting?

Answers

Need to come in or go to hospital

the nurse is assisting a pregnant client who underwent a nonstress test that was ruled reactive. which factor will the nurse point out when questioned by the client about the results?

Answers

Option b) The fetal heart rate increases with activity and indicates fetal well-being.

How does a non-stress test work?

A typical prenatal test to evaluate a baby’s health is a nonstress test. The baby’s heart rate is observed during a non-stress test to evaluate how it reacts to the baby’s movements.

Nonstress refers to the fact that no efforts are made throughout the test to stress the infant.

A positive non-stress test is what?

Your kid is receiving enough oxygen and is doing well, according to a normal NST. If the results are out of the ordinary, your doctor might advise more testing.

An NST can yield one of two outcomes. Reactive: This indicates that at least twice during the test, your baby’s heart rate increased to the desired level.

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Jamie, a boy scout, has practiced tying a particular kind of knot dozens of times, and he does it quickly and efficiently. But when he tries to explain how to do it to a younger member of his troop, he can’t put it into words, he can only show the other boy how to do it. Jamie’s knowledge of knot tying is an example of.

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Jamie, a boy scout, has practiced tying a particular kind of knot dozens of times, and he does it quickly and efficiently. But when he tries to explain how to do it to a younger member of his troop, he can’t put it into words, he can only show the other boy how to do it. Jamie’s knowledge of knot tying is an example of procedural knowledge.

In the field of knowledge, procedural knowledge is a kind of knowledge that occurs when someone learns to do a task through his actions. The individual knows certain steps that lead to the accomplishment of the task.

There are no facts or research studies made on procedural learning. Just by practicing an action, a person becomes best at it.

As Jamie has been able to learn perfectly how to tie a know by practicing the procedure again and again, hence Jamie’s knowledge of knot tying is an example of procedural knowledge. As his descriptive knowledge of Jamie might not be as good as procedural knowledge, he is not able to teach the younger member of his troop how to tie the knot.

Although a part of your question is missing, you might be referring to this question:

Jamie, a boy scout, has practiced tying a particular kind of knot dozens of times, and he does it quickly and efficiently. But when he tries to explain how to do it to a younger member of his troop, he can't put it into words, he can only show the other boy how to do it. Jamie's knowledge of knot tying is an example of

a. semantic knowledge.

b. procedural knowledge.

c. autobiographical knowledge.

d. declarative knowledge.

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What industry's workers experience the most nonfatal workplace violence compared to other professions by a wide margin?

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Answer:

??? what are the answers

Explanation:

According to Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS) data, healthcare and social assistance workers experience the most nonfatal workplace violence compared to workers in other professions by a wide margin.

What are healthcare workers?

In 2019, healthcare and social assistance workers experienced 73% of all nonfatal workplace violence incidents, despite comprising only 16% of the workforce. The BLS defines workplace violence as any act or threat of physical violence, harassment, intimidation, or other threatening behavior that occurs at the work site. Within the healthcare and social assistance industries, workers in psychiatric and substance abuse hospitals, emergency departments, and residential care facilities experience the highest rates of workplace violence.

Hence, according to Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS) data, healthcare and social assistance workers experience the most nonfatal workplace violence compared to workers in other professions by a wide margin.

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3.
Lisa Warren is a newly hired health insurance specialist at a small medical practice, and she is responsible for completing and submitting CMS-
1500 claims. Toward the end of her second day on the job, she is asked to take a phone call from a patient who has questions about his
submitted claim.
The patient tells Lisa that he just received an explanation of benefits (EOB) from his third-party payer, and it makes no sense because the
bottom part of the form that is supposed to include a tear-off check is blank. He tells Lisa that EOB says that he agreed to the assignment of
benefits. The patient is upset because he needs that money to buy groceries.
Lisa uses the medical practice's electronic health record system to quickly access the patient's record, submitted CMS-1500 claim, and
remittance advice the practice received from the payer. Lisa explains to the patient that the physician accepts assignment from this payer. She
further explains that according to her file, the account is considered paid in full because the patient paid her $20 copayment at the time of the
encounter.
The patient argues that the medical practice owes him money because he was supposed to receive a check from the payer.
What is meant by the phrase assignment of benefits?

Answers

The phrase assignment of benefits is referred to as an agreement that transfers the insurance claims rights of the policy to a third party. The benefits which comes with the policy are also transferred as a result of some factors.

What is Insurance?

This is defined as the form of protection from any loss or damage and there are different types which include health insurance, vehicle insurance etc.

In an agreement of benefit, the third party has the right to file a claim or  change the conditions or agreement with the company. The insurance payments can also be collected without the involvement of the owner as a result of certain rights being transferred.

The third party then pays the required percentage to the owner according to the agreement between them and is therefore the most appropriate answer.

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a client has been prescribed morphine 4 – 6 mg iv q4h prn. the client reports pain rated at 8/10 and the nurse verifies on the mar that the client has most often required 6-mg doses. the nurse chooses to administer 6 mg. the drug is available in ampules containing 10mg/ml. how many ml should the nurse withdraw and administer?

Answers

0.6mls of course if ampule contains 10mg think of 6 as in 0.6 since 10mg would be 1ml hope that helps it did for me

The nurse auscultates the lungs of a client with asthma who reports shortness of breath, sore throat, and congestion. which finding does the nurse expect to document?

Answers

The nurse should expect to observe how the chest rises and falls - how fast, is it equal, how deep, listen for the sound of the lungs - you can hear an audible sound, if the air intake is equal, is there any unusual sound and feel - put on your hand on your chest, feel the depth of the breath, the symmetry.

What is Asthma?

Asthma is a chronic disease that affects the airways, especially the bronchi, which are the channels through which air passes into the lungs, causing them to become inflamed, swollen and produce mucus, or extra secretion. This can cause difficulty breathing, coughing, and shortness of breath.

How does an asthma attack start?

Asthma attacks are characterized by coughing, shortness of breath and wheezing, and often the first symptoms are rhinitis, such as sneezing, runny nose and stuffy nose.

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a pregnant client has come to the labor and birth suite in labor. the nurse reviews the client's medical record and determines that a vaginal birth is favorable based on which finding related to the client's pelvic shape?

Answers

The nurse reviews the client's medical record and determines that a vaginal birth  is favorable because the client has gynecoid pelvis.

What is Gynecoid pelvis ?

Gynecoid pelvis: Due to its shape and bone structure, the gynecoid pelvis is typically associated with women. Gynecoid is a slang term for female or like a woman.

The gynecoid pelvis is less high, broader, and more delicate than the male pelvis. The female pubic arch has a broad, rounded angle. The iliac bone is flatter in females and the sacrum is wider in females than in males. The female pelvic cavity is larger and less funnel-shaped.

Purely anatomically speaking, the female pelvis is better equipped to support the fetus during pregnancy and enable delivery.

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a nurse is caring for a child with diagnosed cellulitis on the left lower leg. the nurse notes erythema spreading toward the knee and warmth over the area. the child complains of pain. which priority action should the nurse take

Answers

I form Md right away could be a blood clot

While administering a medication via a syringe, a client sharply moves and the nurse accidentally encounters a needlestick. what is the priority nursing action?

Answers

The correct answer is [C] Report the needle stick to the nurse manager.

A client suddenly shifts while the nurse is using a syringe to provide medication, and she unintentionally sticks herself with a needle. The nurse should notify the nurse management of the needle poke as soon as possible.

What a nurse should do when encounter the needlestick?

A nurse should cleanse cuts and needlesticks with soap and water. Splashes on the skin, mouth, or nose should be rinsed with water. Use sterile irrigants, saline solution, or clean water to clean your eyes. Describe the situation to your manager. Get medical help right away.

Nurses should notify a supervisor right away about any exposures. The fact that nurses are frequently reluctant to disclose quickly away is one of the biggest issues. It's possible that they don't want to "dump" their work on others, and they occasionally worry about being punished for reporting a sharps injury. Some people even refuse to report because they are too shocked or afraid to face the potential of getting sick. To assist stop the spread of bloodborne diseases, treatment should start right once rather than delaying reporting.

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The complete question should be:

"While administering a medication via a syringe, a client sharply moves and the nurse accidentally encounters a needlestick. what is the priority nursing action?

A. Request counseling on the potential for infection.

B. Document the injury.

C. Report the needle stick to the nurse manager.

D. Obtain the client's blood to be tested for HIV and HBV."

a nurse is providing care to a woman in labor. when reviewing the woman's medical record, the nurse notes that fetal position is documented as lsa. the nurse interprets this to mean that which part of the fetus is presenting?

Answers

Effacement guides to the degree of thinning of the cervix. Cervical dilation refers to the period of opening at the widest diameter.

Which assessment would suggest that a woman is in true labor ?

True labor is indicated by contractions occurring at regular intervals that increase in commonness, duration, and intensity. These compacting bring about progressive cervical dilation and effacement. Thus, a cervix enlarged to 4 cm and 90% effaced suggests true labor.

When assessing a patient in true labor Which of the tracking is most likely to be seen?

When true labor occurs, the cervix becomes softened and dilated and effacement occurs; this process is evident by a bloody show, which is the displacement of cervical mucus that is pinkish in color. This typically occurs during true labor, however can occasionally occur in false labor if early cervical changes have occurred.

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A female patient who weighs 65.5kg is prescribed the antibiotic Cidomycin 3mg/kg/day i.v. Calculate the dose in mg of Cidomycin?

Answers

Client's weight is 65.5 kg

Cidomycin dose is 3 mg/day/kg

To calculate total Cidomycin dose in mg,

Client per kg dose = 3 mg

So,

total dose = 65/5 x 3 mg = 196.5 mg

So, a female patient having a weight of 65.5 kg can be prescribed a total dose of 196.5 mg Cidomycin.

Cidomycin 80mg/2ml Solution for Injection is the name of the medication. It contains gentamicin, a medication. This is a member of the class of antibiotics known as "aminoglycosides."Cidomycin is used to treat bacterial infections. Among these are infections in:the urinary system (including your kidneys or bladder)thorax (including your lungs)gutspinal cord and brainblood which is sometimes referred to as "septicemia" or "bacteremia."newborn infants

Therefore, the correct answer is 196.5 mg.

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the nurse discovers a new prescription for rho(d) immune globulin for a client who is about to undergo a diagnostic procedure. the nurse will administer the rho(d) immune globulin after which procedure?

Answers

The nurse locates a fresh RhoGAM prescription for a patient who is ready to have diagnosis testing done. After the amniocentesis operation, the nurse will provide the RhoGAM.

What is Diagnosis?Identification of a given phenomenon's nature and origin is known as diagnosis.The process of diagnosis, which varies in how it uses logic, analytics, and experience to ascertain "cause and effect," is employed in a wide range of fields.It is often used to identify the origins of symptoms, mitigating factors, and remedies in systems engineering and computer science.finding a disease, ailment, or injury based on its signs and symptomsTo aid with the diagnosis, a physical examination, medical history, and testing such blood tests, imaging tests, and biopsies may be employed.

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what is the purpose of a gait belt? group of answer choices it measures the distance a patient has ambulated. it provides a means to steady a patient at the center of gravity or to transfer a patient safely without pulling on the patient’s body. it identifies patients who are at risk for a fall and who require a physical therapist to ambulate. it keeps a patient from ambulating too fast. it is a type of restraint.

Answers

It provides a means to steady a patient safely for sure is the answer

When a government fines and/or imprisons persons convicted of using illegal drugs, the government is attempting to decrease the illegal drug trade by shifting the ________ curve for illegal drugs ________.

Answers

When a government fines and/or imprisons persons convicted of using illegal drugs, the government is attempting to decrease the illegal drug trade by shifting the demand curve for illegal drugs leftward.

In the field of business, we can describe a demand curve as the relationship that occurs between the price of a product and the demand that is has in the market.

When the government fines or imprisons people for using illegal drugs, then the demand for illegal drugs decreases in the market. As a result, the demand curve moves in the negative i.e leftward direction. When the demand of a product is lowered, its price also gets lowered.

On the other hand, if the demand of a product increases in the market, then the demand curve moves in a positive direction.

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When passing a med you should scan the barcode:
O Every time
Only for controlled meds
When you have time
O Only when directed to do so

Answers

Only for controlled meds usually but in hospitals mainly.

Which statement describes the nurse’s best analysis regarding cautious use of sedatives in clients over 65 years of age?
a. Older clients have decreased therapeutic effects from sleeping medication
b. Older clients have an increased risk of nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity related to sedative use
c. Older clients are more prone to the effect of fluid and electrolyte imbalances
d. People over 65 years of age are more prone to addition and dependence

Answers

Answer:

C.  Older clients are more prone to the effect of fluid and electrolyte imbalances

a. Older clients have decreased therapeutic effects from sleeping medication.

Why older clients have decreased therapeutic effects from sleeping medication?

As people age, they may become more sensitive to the effects of medications, including sedatives. The body's metabolism and elimination of drugs can also slow down, which can result in prolonged and heightened effects.

Therefore, older clients may experience decreased therapeutic effects from sleeping medication and an increased risk of adverse reactions. It is important for healthcare providers to use caution when prescribing sedatives to older clients and to monitor their use closely.

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a client in labor has requested the administration of opioids to reduce pain. at 2 cm cervical dilation (dilatation), she says that she is managing the pain well at this point but does not want it to get ahead of her. what should the nurse do?

Answers

A client in labor has requested the administration of opioids to reduce pain. At 2 cm cervical dilation (dilatation), she says that she is managing the pain well at this point but does not want it to get ahead of her. The nurse will encourage the client to delay taking the medication, if at all feasible, to avoid delaying the labor.

Opioids- Opioids on prescription can be given by doctors to treat moderate to severe pain, but they include a host of dangers and side effects. Common types include morphine, methadone, hydrocodone (Vicodin), oxycodone (OxyContin), and others.

Cervical dilation- The cervix thins, softens, relaxes, and dilates in response to uterine contractions, making it simple for the cervix to pass over the presenting foetal part during labour. In late pregnancy, the hyaluronic acid content of the cervix increases. More water molecules are intercalating between the collagen strands as a result.

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When new phenomenon arise, psychologists develop new research studies to generate knowledge on that new phenomenon

Answers

The new phenomenon can be used new research subjects as follows:

What exactly is the phenomena in a study?

Any issue, problem, or topic that is selected as the focus of an investigation might be considered a research phenomenon.

The phenomena may have its roots in a theoretical field, the real world, or even a unique experience or insight.

What does a psychological phenomenon mean?

A phenomenon, in a broader sense, is a fundamental psychological process with theoretically inferred causes and effects that explains human cognitions, emotions, and behaviors.

It is debatable as to whether ego depletion is a phenomenon or a consequence.

What is a research phenomenon example?

Occurrence across the sciences

Things that happen naturally—phenomena—occur or show up without human intervention.

Gravity, tides, moons, planets, volcanic lightning, starling swarms, ant armies, sandstorms, and biological phenomena are a few examples of natural phenomena.

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In a classic medical case study, it was written that phineas gage became emotionally labile and unable to restrain his impulsive behaviors after a severe head injury. While this account appears to have been vastly overstated, because of this story, these functions were associated with damage to which part of the brain?.

Answers

In a classic medical case study, it was written that Phineas gage became emotionally labile and unable to restrain his impulsive behaviors after a severe head injury. Much of the brain damage will occur in the frontal lobes.

The human brain consists of three parts: Forebrain, midbrain, and hindbrain.

Its three main parts are the cerebrum, brainstem, and cerebellum.

The principal purpose of all these parts is to maintain coordination, integration, processing, and other functions of the body.

The forebrain is composed of two major parts called frontal lobes and temporal lobes.

Frontal lobes are more vulnerable to injuries and traumatic accidents as they are located in the forehead region and are the most common areas of injury. A severe head injury can generate impulsive behavioral issues such as Kleptomania.

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In HMIS, Properly describe the hospital triage​

Answers

Answer:

In hospital Information management and systems, hospital triage is a simplicity of categorizing patients within the hospital

Black tagged Critical condition, patient dies even when treatment is undertaken

Red tagged Critical condition, patient dies if treatment is not immediate.

Green triage Normal condition, patient stays alive even when treatment is provided lately.

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Answer:

Triage is the summarizing of information to be managed in all hospital sectors

the nurse is assessing a pregnant client at 37 weeks' gestation and notes the fetus is at 0 station. when questioned by the client as to what has happened, the nurse should point out which event has occurred?

Answers

The nurse should point out Engagement event has occurred.

Explanation:

Engagement is the process by which the fetus exits the upper uterus and enters the pelvis.

The fetus is beginning its first cardinal movement in anticipation of spontaneous vaginal delivery.

Flexion happens when the soft tissues and muscles of the pelvic floor resist the fetus.

When a fetus is in extension, its head is fully flexed and its chin rests on its chest as it passes through the birth canal.

Expulsion happens after the anterior and posterior shoulders emerge.

According to their findings, "the concept of patient engagement can be defined as the desire and capacity to actively choose to participate in care in a way that is individually appropriate to the individual in cooperation with a healthcare provider or institution for the purposes of maximizing outcomes or experiences of care.

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the beneficial effects of a recommendation should be described to the patient before they are warned of any potential difficulties or adverse effects.

Answers

the beneficial effects of a recommendation should be described to the patient before they are warned of any potential difficulties or adverse effects. So the answer is True.

Adverse Effect:

An adverse effect is a bad side effect caused by a medicine or other intervention, such as surgery. When an unfavourable effect is seen to be secondary to a primary or therapeutic effect, it is referred to as a "side effect."

Beneficial effect

A beneficial effect is one that occurs immediately and has no negative consequences. If the overall effect of the planned action is positive but it is also likely to have some negative consequences, the proposed action is deemed to have a negative impact. See also the preceding definition of "adversely effect."

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The nurse provides care for a patient with a chest tube flutter valve in place and recalls which information about the device?

Answers

The nurse cares for a patient with a chest tube flutter valve installed and reminds her that this equipment is used to prevent air from flowing back along a chest tube.

What Does a Chest Tube Vibration Valve Do?

A vibration valve (also known as a Heimlich valve after its inventor, Henry Heimlich) is a one-way valve used in respiratory medicine to prevent air from flowing back along a chest tube.

With this information, we can conclude that The flutter valve drainage bag is a 'no water' ambulatory system which incorporates a one-way valve and can be used both in hospital and outpatient drainage of pleural collections

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Consider a disease in which there is no cure. once a person is infected, they have the disease for life. in a population where no one moves in or out (i.e., a steady-state population), how could the prevalence of such a disease increase over time while the incidence remains the same? explain.

Answers

The prevalence of such a disease increases over time while the incidence remains the same as there are no people moving in and out and more people are catching the disease.

In the field of science, prevalence can be described as the particular rate at which a disease occurs in a population.

The prevalence of a disease depends on two factors which are incidence rate and average duration of disease.

As there are no movements in the above-mentioned population, then this means that more and more people in the population will be affected by this disease with the passage of time. However, the rate of spread of this disease i.e incidence rate will remain the same. For the incidence rate to increase, there shall be factors which promote the quick spreading of this disease.

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