Find x , the angle of depression from the top of a lighthouse that is 173 ft above water level to the waterline of a ship 1119 ft off shore. Round your answer to the nearest tenth of a degree.

The property of equality that justifies the statement where the statement is given as "If VR + TY = EN + TY, then VR = EN" is the subtraction property of equality

The statement is given as

If VR + TY = EN + TY, then VR=EN

In the above statement, we have the following equation

VR + TY = EN + TY

By applying the subtraction property of equality, we have the following equation

So, we have

VR + TY - TY = EN + TY - TY

Evaluate the  difference in the above equation

So, we have

VR = EN

Hence, the property of equality that justifies the statement where the statement is given as "If VR + TY = EN + TY, then VR = EN" is the subtraction property of equality

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Therefore  [tex]\overrightarrow{\mathrm{a.b}}=3.00 \hat{i}+6.00 \hat{j}[/tex]

Ax=-2.54 Ay=2.32

The sum of two or more vectors is called the Resultant.

The Resultant is the vector sum of two or more vectors. It is the result of adding two or more vectors together. If displacement vectors A, B, and C are added together, the result will be vector R.

[tex]$$\mathrm{A}_{\mathrm{x}}=-3.00, \mathrm{~A}_{\mathrm{y}}=2.00$$(a) $\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}=\mathrm{A}_{\mathrm{x}} \hat{\mathrm{i}}+\mathrm{A}_{\mathrm{y}} \hat{\mathrm{j}}=-3.00 \hat{\mathrm{i}}+2.00 \hat{\mathrm{j}}$(b) $|\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}|=\sqrt{\mathrm{A}_{\mathrm{z}}^2+\mathrm{A}_{\mathrm{y}}^2}=\sqrt{(-3.00)^2+(2.00)^2}=3.61$$$\theta=\tan ^{-1}\left(\frac{\mathrm{A}_{\mathrm{Y}}}{\mathrm{A}_{\mathrm{K}}}\right)=\tan ^{-1}\left(\frac{2.00}{-3.00}\right)=-33.7^0$$[/tex]

[tex]$\theta=180^{\circ}+\left(-33.7^{\circ}\right)=146^{\circ}$[/tex]

[tex]$\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{x}}=0, \mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{y}}=-4.00$ and $\overrightarrow{\mathrm{R}}=\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}+\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}$, thus $\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}=\overrightarrow{\mathrm{R}}-\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}$ and$$\mathrm{B}_{\mathrm{x}}=\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{x}}-\mathrm{A}_{\mathrm{x}}=0-(-3.00)=3.00, \mathrm{~B}_{\mathrm{y}}=\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{y}}-\mathrm{A}_{\mathrm{y}}=-4.00-2.00=-6.00$$[/tex]

[tex]\text { Therefore, } \overrightarrow{\mathrm{a,b}}=3.00 \hat{i}+6.00 \hat{j}[/tex]

[tex]\text { Therefore, } \overrightarrow{\mathrm{a.b}}=3.00 \hat{i}+6.00 \hat{j}[/tex]

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Answer:

The Inequality Equation =

22 + 9x ≤ 58

The number of T -shirts Debbie can buy is at most 4 T-shirts

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the number of T shirts Debbie can buy be represented as x

We are told in the question: Debbie has at most $58 to spend on clothes.

This means she would not exceed $58. She would be spending less than or equal to $58

The Inequality Equation =

$22 + $9 × x ≤ $58

22 + 9x ≤ 58

Solving the Inequality Equation above:

22 + 9x ≤ 58

9x ≤ 58 - 22

9x ≤ 36

x ≤ 36/9

x ≤ 4 shirts

The number of T -shirts Debbie can buy is at most 4 T-shirts

Answer:You have 2 cards upfront, so the constant term in this linear equation is 2.  The slope represents how many more cards you buy or acquire per day, week or month (depending upon how eager you are to fatten your collection).  ;)

y = 2 + (rate of acquisition of cards)(time)

y = 2 + rt

Answer:

The second table shows a linear function

Step-by-step explanation:

The linear function intersect at -2

Answer:

0

Step-by-step explanation:

ndjejdge Hell wkdbs hru osdhdvgd

Answer: i have no clue

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

6,053.29

Step-by-step explanation:

Use this formula:

A= p(1+r/n)^nt

A= Amount (?)

P= Principal (4600)

r - interest rate (4%)

n= number of times the interest is compounded per year (1)

t= time (7 years)

Answer:

£6053.29 to the nearest penny.

Step-by-step explanation:

Amount after 7 years = 4600(1 + 0.04)^7

= 4600 * 1.04^7

= £6053.286.

Answer:

2/4x2/4=0.25  or 1/4

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: C, D, E

Step-by-step explanation: sub in -3 for x and 6 for y in all equations. Only c and d are true. In the graphs, E is the only one that has the point (-3,6)

Answer:

c, d, and e

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

-4

Step-by-step explanation:

sorry if this is wrong I forgot how to do it. :)

(I think)

Answer:No

Step-by-step explanation:

1/6 x 10= 1 4/6

The 10 comes from how many time 6 minutes can go into 60 = 1hr

Answer:

No. Jami can mow more than her advertisement states

Step-by-step explanation:

Because she can mow 1/6 of an acre in 6 minutes, and an hour is 60 minutes long, we know that she can mow up to ten times that in one hour. Think about it this way. How many times does six minutes go into 60? 10. So Jami can mow 1/6 of an acre up to 10 times in one hour. This means that in an hour Jami can mow 10/6, or 1 and 2/3 of an acre in an hour. Thus, her advertisement is understating how quickly she can mow.

Answer:

K is -12/5

k is also 28/5

Step-by-step explanation:

Here, we want to solve the equation

|5k-8| = 10(2)

5k-8 = 20

5k = 20 + 8

5k = 28

k = 28/5

or

5k-8 = -20

5k = -20 + 8

5k = -12

k = -12/5

Answer:

All real numbers greater than or equal to 0.

General Formulas and Concepts:

Algebra I

Step-by-step explanation:

According to the graph, we see that our x-values span from 0 to infinity. Since 0 is a closed dot, it is inclusive in the domain:

[0, ∞) or x ≥ 0 or All Real Numbers greater than or equal to 0.

Answer:

Please check the explanation.

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that if we multiply 3 and 4, we get 12.

In other words, 3 × 4 = 12

Thus, 3 and 4 are factors of 12.

now

Given the expression

[tex](a+b+c)(d+e+f)[/tex]

The given expression consists of two factors which are:

We also know that an expression can consist of terms, a term may be a constant or a variable. It can be both as well.

For example, in the expression, 4b + 2, 4b and 2 are terms.

so,

Answer:

4

General Formulas and Concepts:

Pre-Algebra

Order of Operations: BPEMDAS

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1: Define

4(2y - 3)

y = 2

Step 2: Evaluate

Answer:

4

Step-by-step explanation:

Substitute y for 2

4((2×2)-3)

Simplify

4(4-3)

Simplify further

4×1

4×1=4

Answer:

120

Step-by-step explanation:

Exterior angle theorem

50 + 70 = 120

Answer:

120

Step-by-step explanation:

the insides of a triangle add up to 180 degrees. You're given 70 and 50 degrees which add to 120 and that means the other angle is 60 degrees. Since you're trying to find an outside angle, you need to do subtract the 60 degrees we just found from 180 (because its a supplementary angle). 180-60 is 120 and thats the answer

Answer:

9/3 or 3

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

3

Step-by-step explanation:

9/12 divided by 1/4 is 9/12 x 4/1=36/12=3

Answer:

AAS

Step-by-step explanation:

im bad at this stuff you can take your risk or look at other answers

Answer:

$99.91

Step-by-step explanation:

If the markup is 60.5%, then the selling price would be 160.5% of the original price.

160.5%=1.605

$62.25*1.605=$99.91125

Since you can't have 0.00125 dollars, lets round to the nearest hundredth.

The selling price is $99.91

Answer:

the answer is 9.85

Step-by-step explanation:

the answer is 9.85 because the area is 19.7 so all you have to do is divide it by 2

Given that,

The cone and the sphere have the same volume.

___________________________________________

Volume of the cone

[tex] = \frac{1}{3}\pi {r}^{2} h[/tex]

[tex] = \frac{1}{3} \times \frac{22}{7} \times 2.4 \times 2.4 \times 8.3[/tex]

[tex] = 1 \times \frac{22}{7} \times 0.8 \times 2.4 \times 8.3[/tex]

[tex] = \frac{22}{7} \times 1.92 \times 8.3[/tex]

[tex] = \frac{22}{7} \times 15.93[/tex]

[tex] = 22 \times 2.27[/tex]

[tex] = 49.94[/tex]

[tex] = 50 {cm}^{3} (rounded)[/tex]

Also,

Volume of the sphere

= 50cm³

[tex] = \frac{4}{3} \pi {r}^{2} = 50[/tex]

[tex] \pi {r}^{2} = 50 \times \frac{3}{4} [/tex]

[tex]\pi {r}^{2} = 37.5[/tex]

There is only one value of c that satisfies the requirements.

=======================================================

Work Shown:

Let's compute the function value at the given endpoints of the interval.

[tex]f(x) = 4\sin(x)\\\\f(\pi) = 4\sin(\pi) = 0\\\\f(0) = 4\sin(0) = 0\\\\[/tex]

Which means,

[tex]f'(c) = \frac{f(b)-f(a)}{b-a}\\\\f'(c) = \frac{f(\pi)-f(0)}{\pi-0}\\\\f'(c) = \frac{0-0}{\pi}\\\\f'(c) = \frac{0}{\pi}\\\\f'(c) = 0\\\\[/tex]

We want to find all values of c such that the derivative is 0.

This can be rephrased into wanting to solve [tex]4\cos(x) = 0\\\\[/tex] since the derivative of sine is cosine

In other words, [tex]f(x) = 4\sin(x)\\\\[/tex] turns into [tex]f'(x) = 4\cos(x)\\\\[/tex]

Solving that equation leads to:

[tex]4\cos(x) = 0\\\\\cos(x) = 0\\\\x = \frac{\pi}{2}\\\\[/tex]

Use a reference table or the unit circle to determine this.

This is the value of c that satisfies f ' (c) = 0, such that [tex]0 < c < \pi[/tex]. No other value of c works.

If you graphed f(x) = 4sin(x), and only focused on the interval [0,pi], then you'll find that there's a horizontal tangent at the point (pi/2, 4). Note how the endpoints have the same y value so that's why the average rate of change over [0,pi] is 0.

Side note: this is an application of Rolle's Theorem

Answer:

54 students

Step-by-step explanation:

90× 60% = 54

Answer:

28.125 hours

Step-by-step explanation:

250- the 25 dollar bonus=225

225/8 dollars an hour= 28.125 hours

Answer:

6.25

Step-by-step explanation:

250/8= 31.25

then take away the added bonus

31.25-25= 6.25