Helppppp im tired and I cant even think no moreee​

Answer:

1/64

Step-by-step explanation:

2/8 chance that one of them get a gift card at least $25.

Do that three times

2/8 x 2/8 x 2/8 = 1/64 (simplified it)

Answer:

2 dollars is one candy bar

Step-by-step explanation:15-3

12/6=2

Answer:

10 weeks

Step-by-step explanation:

12 * 3 = $36 At this point of 3 weeks you will be out of debt.

$12 * 7 weeks = $84 At  this point you will be a dollar short, but you had a dollar left over after 3 weeks. This would put you at a total of $85.

So, it would take 3 weeks to get out of debt and 7 to get up to $85.

3 + 7 = 10

A= 10 weeks

Hope this helps! :)

Answer:

1. potential

2. potential

3. potential

4. kinetic

5. kinetic

6. kinetic

7. potential

8. kinetic

9. kinetic

10. potential

11. kinetic

12. potential

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer is C and E.

All of the other ones don't follow order of operations properly.

Answer:

So we know that y=1/2x. So we apply this equation on each x.

x=-2, so y=1/2*-2 which is -1. so y = -1

x=0, so y = 1/2 * 0 which is 0. so y=0

x=2, so y = 1/2*2 which is 1. so y=1

Hope this helps :))

Answer:

x = 8/3

Step-by-step explanation:

3x + 16 = 24

3x = 24 - 16 (subtract 16 from both sides)

3x = 8

x = 8/3 (divide both sides by 3)

Answer: x = 5, y = 2/5

Step-by-step explanation:

We have the system of equations:

6*x + 5*y = 32

2*x + 5*y = 12

To solve it, we can start by isolating one of the variables in one of the equations.

Because in both of them we have the term 5*y, i will isolate 5*y in the second equation:

5*y = 12 - 2*x

Now let's replace it in the first equation:

6*x + (12 - 2*x) = 32

Now let's solve it for x

6*x + 12 - 2*x = 32

(6*x - 2*x) = 32 - 12 = 20

4*x = 20

x = 20/4 = 5

Now we know the value of x, we can replace it in the equation:

5*y = 12 - 2*x

to find the value of y.

5*y = 12 - 2*5

5*y = 2

y = 2/5

Then the solution of the system is x = 5, y = 2/5

Answer:

A Set

Explanation:

A set is a well-defined collection of objects called elements or members of the set.

perimeter is the total length of a boundary of a figure.

Answer:

hahahahahaha uh

Step-by-step explanation:

I think you just keep pressing spare until she lets you go i think--

Answer:

DONT SPARE

Challenge if you want a challenge Plead if you dont.

Then when your soul turns red spare and start running

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

These are congruent, I used the method of mirroring to solve. A to L equals W  to K

Answer:

△ LAW ≅ WKL

By the Rule: ASA/SAA

Step-by-step explanation:

I hope this helps

Answer:

i do not know

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:  Choice B

Point P is located at (-2, -1.8)

======================================================

Explanation:

Refer to the diagram below. I've added point Q (2, -3) that is directly below point M, and directly to the right of point N. Right triangle MQN forms with the 90 degree angle at point Q.

The distance from N to Q is 5 units. Count the spaces or apply subtraction and absolute value to find this.

1/5 of this distance is (1/5)*5 = 1. Starting at point N, move 1 unit to the right to arrive at point A(-2,-3). Point P is directly above this point A, such that point P is on line segment MN.

In other words, point P has x coordinate x = -2. So the answer must be choice B as this is the only answer choice that has its point with x coordinate -2.

--------------------

The distance from Q to M is 6 units. Taking 1/5 of this leads to (1/5)*6 = 1.2

Start at point Q and move 1.2 units up to arrive at point B(2,-1.8). This point is on the same horizontal level as point P. So points B and P have the same y coordinate y = -1.8

The x coordinate of P is the same as the x coordinate of A(-2,-3)

The y coordinate of P is the same as the y coordinate of B(2,-1.8)

So overall, point P is located at P(-2,-1.8).

Again refer to the diagram. It shows point P directly above point A, and it shows point P on the same level as point B.

The length of segment NP is exactly 1/5 that of the length of segment NM.

We can write that as

NP = (1/5)*NM

this is equivalent to

5*NP = NM

after multiplying both sides by 5

Answer:

F: 12r+y

Step-by-step explanation:

- Why not G because if you multiple 2 by 6 and you get 12 then why not multiple the 6 too.

- Why not H because how do you get 16???

- Why not J because you don't add 2 pulse 6 to make 8 when you are supposes to multiple.

Hope this helps and sorry if wrong :)

Answer:

1440

Step-by-step explanation:

You multiply 30 by 48, so when it says something like "64 inches by 17 inches" you will have to multiply. Hope i helped!

the answer is 20 ......

Answer: -8(4d-7)

Step-by-step explanation:

-32d+56=-8([tex]\frac{-32d}{-8}[/tex]+[tex]\frac{56}{-8}[/tex])=-8(4d-7)

Answer:

15 feet

Step-by-step explanation:

The ladder is the hypotenuse of a right triangle, with the legs being 9 ft and 12 ft long (see the picture).

To solve for the length of the ladder, use the Pythagorean Theorem.

[tex]9^{2} +12^{2} =c^{2} \\c=\sqrt{9^{2} +12^{2}} \\c=\sqrt{81+144} \\c=\sqrt{225} \\c=15[/tex]

Answer:

1. $927

2. The ERROR in his expression is that he used 1.015 instead of using 0.015 (1.5%).

Step-by-step explanation:

1. Calculation for What is the correct amount Vince will pay back altogether

Using this formula

A = P + PRT

Where,

A represent Amount=?

P represent Principal =$900

R represent Rate of interest= 1.5%

T represent Time=2 years

Let plug in the formula

A = $900 + $900(0.015*2)

A = $900 + $900(0.03)

A = $900 + $27

A = $927

2. Explanation of the error in in Vince’s expression.

Based on the information given the expression he used which is 900 + 900(1.015 • 2) was correct but the ERROR in his EXPRESSION is that he incorrectly used 1.015 instead of using 0.015 (1.5%).

Therefore the correct amount Vince will pay back altogether will be $927 while the ERROR in his expression used 1.015 instead of using 0.015 (1.5%).

Answer:

26 pencils were thrown away.

Step-by-step explanation:

1/5 = 8/40

1/4 = 6/32

add them together 18/40

26 were thrown out

Answer:

x = 8 and y = - 1

Step-by-step explanation:

The equation of a vertical line parallel to the y- axis is

x = c

where c is the value of the x- coordinates the line passes through

The line passes through (8, - 1 ) with x- coordinate 8, then

x = 8 ← equation of vertical line

The equation of a horizontal line parallel to the x- axis is

y = c

where c is the value of the y- coordinates the line passes through

The line passes through (8, - 1 ) with y- coordinate - 1, then

y = - 1 ← equation of horizontal line

Step-by-step explanation:

In a GP, there is a common ratio between the terms.

8 / (-16/5) = 8 * (-5/16) = -2.5

-20 / 8 = -2.5

We can see that every new term is -2.5 times bigger than the previous term.

Hence to find the next term,

we multiply -20 by -2.5:

(-20)(-2.5) = 50.

Hence 50 should go into the box.

Answer:

50

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: Answer choice B

Step-by-step explanation:

plug -7 for x into the function

f(-7)=-4(-7)²+19

f(-7)=-4(49)+19

f(-7)=-196+19

f(-7)=-177

Answer: 1.375 inches

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

81%

Step-by-step explanation:

2835 / 3500

0.81 out of 1

81%

Answer:

the answer is 1000