Keegan and Annie are working on an experiment in the science lab. Their mixture contains ingredients that weigh 5.22 grams, 5.7 grams, and 7.43 grams. Keegan calculates the combined weight to be 18.35 grams; Annie calculates it to be 13.22 grams.
Who is correct, and why?

Answer: It is $42.4

Step-by-step explanation: Multiply (0.20)(53), you get 10.6, now that's the price that is discounted, so subtract that from the total, to get $42.4. If you want to check your answer, do 42.4/53 and you would get 0.80, or 80%. That is what you should get since you have a 20% discount from 100% of a product.

Answer:

the sales price is $10.60

Step-by-step explanation:

to find 20% of 53, I multiplied 53 by 20 and 100 by a (i used the variable a to substitute for the answer we are going to get)

53 x 20 = 1060

100 x a = 100a

In order to get "a" we have to divide by 100 for each number.

1060 ÷ 100 = 10.6

100a ÷ 100 = a

in conclusion, a = 10.6, or $10.60 hope this helps :)

Answer:

m=81

Step-by-step explanation:

14 x 1.5 = 21

54 x 1.5 = 81

Answer:

m = 81

Step-by-step explanation:

divide by 54/14 from both sides.

you'll remain with 81/m

then divide with m/1 on both sides giving you m= 81

Answer:

195 = 3 mph

Step-by-step explanation:

This is probly wrong but I tried

Answer:

He had 3 2/5 pies left when he got home.

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope this helped have an amazing day!

The fraction of candy cane pies that Dasher left is 8/5.

In such a fraction, the value that appears above the horizontal line is referred to as the numerator.

In another word, if we divide two numbers by each other then the upper word is called the numerator, and the lower word is called the denominator.

As per the given,

Number of candy cane pies that Dasher order = 4

Fraction he ate = 3/5

Left = 4 - ate

Left = 4 - (3/5)4

Left = 4(1 - 3/5)

Left = 4(2/5)

Left = 8/5

Hence "The fraction of candy cane pies that Dasher left is 8/5".

For more about fractions,

https://brainly.com/question/10354322

#SPJ2

The required probability is 0.45

We have total 26 letters in English, of which 21 are consonants and 5 are vowels.

According to the question, we have to select 5 of them of which 4 will be consonants and 1 will be vowel.

Suppose we want to have the vowel in the first selection, so the probability of picking a vowel is equal to the quotient between the number of vowels and the number of total number of letters.

So the probability is 5/26

Now, a letter has been selected, so in the set, we have 25 letters left.

In the next 4 selections, we must select consonants.

In the second selection the probability is 21/25

In the third selection the probability is 20/24

In the fourth selection the probability is 19/23

In the last selection the probability is 18/22

So, the probability is (5/26)×(21/25)×(20/24)×(19/23)×(18/22)

Now, remember that we take that the vowel must be in the first place, but it can be in any five places, so if we add the permutations of the vowel letter we have,

P = 5×(5/26)×(21/25)×(20/24)×(19/23)×(18/22) = 0.45

Learn more about Probability at:

https://brainly.com/question/17142107

#SPJ4

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

#4 is c

Step-by-step explanation:

bc the slope is negative & they y intercept is 5

Answer:

4. c

5. y=7/8x+1

6. y=-10x

7. y=2.5-7

8. y=1.2x

9. y=-5x-8

Step-by-step explanation:

4. because the graph is in a negative direction and the point is higher than 0

5. non-proportional means it doesn't pass through (0,0)

6. the y-intercept would be 0 so there is no b

7. the slope would be positive because it says it goes from left to right

8. same explanation as 6

9. only one with both a negative slope and y-intercept

$161.50

Step-by-step explanation:

4.25% of $3800 is $161.50

limₐ→∞xₙₐ= limₙ→∞xₙ= L;

Let xₙ be a monotonically increasing sequence. Thus:

xₙ₊₁≥xₙ

Consider a subsequence of xₙ namely xₙₐ. Then:

xₙₐ≥xₙ, ∀nₐ≥n

We are also given that:

limₐ→∞xₙₐ=L

Given that fact we know that xₙₐ is bounded above. Therefore:

xₙ≤xₙₐ≤L

Now by monotone convergence theorem a monotone bounded sequence must be convergent. Also by uniqueness of a limit for a convergent sequence and the fact that all its subsequences are also convergent to the same limit:

limₐ→∞xₙₐ= limₙ→∞xₙ= L

To learn more about this; visit: https://brainly.com/question/24823962

#SPJ4

Answer:

[tex]x = bc + 2b[/tex]

PLEASE MARK ME AS BRAINLIEST

Answer:

The length of the third side of the triangle is 30.

Step-by-step explanation:

Here is the formula for the Pythagorean Theorem:

[tex]a^{2} + b^{2} = c^{2}[/tex]

The hypotenuse, based on the problem, is 50. Anyways, let's get back to calculating!

We need to multiply 40 times 40 and 50 times 50.

40 times 40, or 40 squared, equals to 1600.

50 times 50, or 50 squared, equals to 2500.

[tex]c^{2} - b^{2} = a^{2}[/tex]

Now, let's subtract. 2500 - 1600 = 900. We need to find the square root of 900--which is 30, because 30 times 30, or 30 squared, equals to 900.

Answer:

30

Step-by-step explanation:

c=√a^2+b^2

a=√c^2-b^2 = √50^2-40^2 = 30

Answer:fbf

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The second table shows a linear function

Step-by-step explanation:

The linear function intersect at -2

m perpendicular to q is the correct answer

Answer:

A, C and D

they all connect at a right angle. it is not b because p and q are parallel.

Answer:

a

Step-by-step explanation:

bc there zapping at the same spot which will not rotate around

Answer:

The rule which best represents the dilation that was applied to Triangle ABC to create A’B’C’ will be:

(x, y) → (1/2x, 1/2y)

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the vertices of a triangle

After the dilation, the vertices of an image triangle be

If we closely observe, we can notice that the image triangle vertices A'B'C' are half of the original triangle ABC.

i.e. (x, y) → (1/2x, 1/2y)

verification

A(-2, -4) → A'(-2/2, -4/2) = A'(-1, -2)

B(2, -4) → B'(2/2, -4/2) = B'(1, -2)

C(0, 2) → C'(0/2, 2/2) = C'(0, 1)

Thus, it is verified and we conclude that the rule which best represents the dilation that was applied to Triangle ABC to create A’B’C’ will be:

Answer:

0

Step-by-step explanation:

ndjejdge Hell wkdbs hru osdhdvgd

Answer: i have no clue

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The is -12/7 or -1 5/7

Step-by-step explanation:

7x+12=0

-12 -12

7x=-12 divided by 7 on both sides hope this helps

Answer:

33 Minutes

Step-by-step explanation:

Just take 11/2 time 6 and get 33 minutes.

By using the formula of compound interest we can say that at the end of second year Mrs. Smith will have $65,771.58.

The interest earned from the initial deposit plus the cumulative interest is known as compound interest.

A = P(1 + r/n)^(nt), where P is the principle balance, r is the interest rate, n is the number of times interest is compounded per time period, and t is the total number of time periods, is the formula for compound interest.

Given that,

For first year,

P (principal) = $60,000.00

R = 4.3%

n  = 1

t = 1

First, convert R as a percent to r as a decimal

r = R/100

r = 4.3/100

r = 0.043 rate per year,

Then solve the equation for A

A = P(1 + r/n)^nt

A = 60,000.00(1 + 0.043/1)^(1×1)

A = 60,000.00(1 + 0.043)^(1)

A = $62,580.00

A = P + I  where,

P (principal) = $60,000.00

I (interest) = $2,580.00

So, by the end of second year Mrs. Smith will have $62,580.00.

Now, the amount calculated from first year will become the principle for second year.

For second year,

P (principal) = $62,580.00

R = 5.1%

n=1

t=1

First, convert R as a percent to r as a decimal

r = R/100

r = 5.1/100

r = 0.051 rate per year,

Then solve the equation for A

A = P(1 + r/n)^nt

A = 62,580.00(1 + 0.051/1)^(1×1)

A = 62,580.00(1 + 0.051)^(1)

A = $65,771.58

A = P + I where,

P (principal) = $62,580.00

I (interest) = $3,191.58

So, by the end of second year Mrs. Smith will have $65,771.58.

To learn more about compound interest, visit:

https://brainly.com/question/14295570

#SPJ9

Answer:

2/4-1/3= 6/12-4/12

=2/12

=1/6

Answer:

4

Step-by-step explanation:

To get 22 with four consecutive integers, we need the integers 4, 5, 6, and 7.

(4 and 5 equal 9, then 9 and 6 equal 15, and 15 and 7 equal 22.)

4 is the smallest of these four, and thus the least of these.

Answer: $2,200

Step-by-step explanation:

The opportunity cost is the sum of the amount she spent on the election and the amount she would lose in total from serving on the student government.

Amount she would lose in wages

= 7 * 10 hours * 30 weeks

= $2,100

Opportunity cost = 2,100 + 100

= $2,200

Answer:

B) angle R=angle U  C) angle S=angle V  E) QR=TU  F) QS=TV,

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

9/3 or 3

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

3

Step-by-step explanation:

9/12 divided by 1/4 is 9/12 x 4/1=36/12=3

Answer:

26

General Formulas and Concepts:

Pre-Algebra

Order of Operations: BPEMDAS

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1: Define

x + y + 5

x = 6

y = 15

Step 2: Evaluate

There is only one value of c that satisfies the requirements.

=======================================================

Work Shown:

Let's compute the function value at the given endpoints of the interval.

[tex]f(x) = 4\sin(x)\\\\f(\pi) = 4\sin(\pi) = 0\\\\f(0) = 4\sin(0) = 0\\\\[/tex]

Which means,

[tex]f'(c) = \frac{f(b)-f(a)}{b-a}\\\\f'(c) = \frac{f(\pi)-f(0)}{\pi-0}\\\\f'(c) = \frac{0-0}{\pi}\\\\f'(c) = \frac{0}{\pi}\\\\f'(c) = 0\\\\[/tex]

We want to find all values of c such that the derivative is 0.

This can be rephrased into wanting to solve [tex]4\cos(x) = 0\\\\[/tex] since the derivative of sine is cosine

In other words, [tex]f(x) = 4\sin(x)\\\\[/tex] turns into [tex]f'(x) = 4\cos(x)\\\\[/tex]

Solving that equation leads to:

[tex]4\cos(x) = 0\\\\\cos(x) = 0\\\\x = \frac{\pi}{2}\\\\[/tex]

Use a reference table or the unit circle to determine this.

This is the value of c that satisfies f ' (c) = 0, such that [tex]0 < c < \pi[/tex]. No other value of c works.

If you graphed f(x) = 4sin(x), and only focused on the interval [0,pi], then you'll find that there's a horizontal tangent at the point (pi/2, 4). Note how the endpoints have the same y value so that's why the average rate of change over [0,pi] is 0.

Side note: this is an application of Rolle's Theorem