It supports the claim that (D) the variability in neuroticism is due partly to genetic variability in the population
The amount of emotional stability that a person exhibits is indicated by their neuroticism. It is sometimes described as a negative personality feature characterized by unpleasant emotions, poor self-regulation (an inability to control desires), difficulty handling stress, a strong reaction to perceived dangers, and a propensity for complaining.
According to a meta-analysis of six twin cohorts with a total N of 29,496 and 29,501 twin pairs, respectively, the IRT-based scores for neuroticism and extraversion were heritable (48 and 49%, respectively), with a substantial portion of the heritability attributable to non-additive genetic variables.
These genetic variables qualitatively vary between sexes in extraversion. Any mega- or meta-analytic investigation that requires the harmonization of item-based behavioral measurements can use the item-response theory technique.
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Question correction:
The estimated heritability of 48 percent for neuroticism in the population supports the claim that
A) the population in general has a recessive gene for neuroticism
B) the incidence of neuroticism is associated with that of another distinct trait
C) those with the neurotic trait share a particular dominant allele
D) the variability in neuroticism is due partly to genetic variability in the population
a nurse is concerned that a client may develop postoperative atelectasis. which nursing diagnosis would be most appropriate if this complication occurs?
nursing diagnosis would be most appropriate if this complication occurs
Impaired gas exchange.
What is meant by impaired gas exchange?You cannot effectively receive enough oxygen or expel carbon dioxide from your body when gas exchange is compromised. Shortness of breath is one of the symptoms that can result from this, especially when you exert yourself. coughing.In the initial evaluation, 42.6% of the children had the diagnosis with Impaired gas exchange.
The trait that offered the most accurate measurements was hypoxemia.
Restlessness, cyanosis, and abnormal skin color displayed high specificity, whereas abnormal breathing displayed high sensitivity. The high positive predictive value of cyanosis stood out among the characteristics, which all had negative predictive values of 70% or higher.To learn more about nurse assessment, refer
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7. health care operations are defined as activities considered in support of treatment and payment and for which protected health information (phi) could be used or disclosed without individual authorization.
This statement is definitely true about support of treatment and payment under health care operations.
Without the person's consent, a covered entity may use or divulge protected health information for its own operations, including payment and treatment. For instance:
In order to treat a patient and to confer with other medical professionals regarding the patient's care, a hospital may use protected health information about the patient.As part of a reimbursement claim to a health plan, a healthcare professional may divulge protected health information about a patient.Protected health information may be used by a health plan to offer its members customer support.Here is another question with an answer similar to this about HIPAA Privacy Rule: https://brainly.com/question/13718607
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Question correction:
Health care operations are defined as activities considered in support of treatment and payment and for which protected health information (phi) could be used or disclosed without individual authorization. Is this true or false?
a nurse is conducting a seminar on basic nutrition and is teaching about the different groups of carbohydrates. which should the nurse identify as recommended sources of carbohydrates for managing diabetes?
Here are the recommended sources of carbohydrates for managing diabetes:
whole grainslegumeslow-fat milkThe fact that milk such as low-fat milk and other dairy products carry sugar in the form of lactose may confuse you. But because these foods include calcium and protein, they should be a part of a healthy diabetes diet.
In fact, a June 2018 BMJ report indicated that a diet high in fruits, vegetables, whole grains, legumes, nuts, and dairy are all essential components of a healthy diet in the management of diabetes. What do all of them share? Every one of these is a source of carbs.
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a pregnant client requires administration of an epidural block for management of pain during labor. for which conditions should the nurse check the client before administering the epidural block? select all that apply.
These are the conditions:
(A, B, & D) spinal abnormality, hypovolemnia, coagulation defects
A back injection (shot) of numbing medication is known as an epidural block. It causes numbness or a loss of feeling in your lower body. This lowers the discomfort of labor contractions. In order to lessen discomfort during surgery on the lower extremities, an epidural block may also be employed.
The client's spine, hypovolemia, and coagulation abnormalities should all be examined by the nurse. The use of an epidural in women with certain disorders is not advised. Contraindications for an epidural block do not include varicose veins, rashes, or bruising, but they do for massage.
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Question correction:
A pregnant client requires administration of an epidural block for management of pain during labor For which conditions should the nurse check the client before administering the epidural block? SATA
a) spinal abnormality
b) hypovolemnia
c) varicose veins
d) coagulation defects
e) skin rashes or bruises
Selection of assessment tools is largely determined by the patient’s symptoms, age, and medical status. One other factor may be the.
Selection of assessment tools is largely determined by the patient’s symptoms, age, and medical status. One other factor may be the therapist's theoretical perspective.
Therapist's theoretical perspective- In counseling, theoretical orientation fundamentally refers to the ideas or viewpoints a mental health practitioner employs to evaluate, comprehend, and treat clients. Theoretical orientation refers to any theory that what a mental health professional utilizes to direct their practice.
Symptoms- A doctor can't see a patient's symptoms, which are their subjective perceptions of a potential health problem. Examples include pains in the stomach after consuming undercooked meat, a pounding headache caused by stress, or an excruciating sense of exhaustion.
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a patient with muscle ache would like to use an over-the-counter nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (nsaid). the patient informs a nurse that he is taking antihypertensive drugs for blood pressure control. why should the nurse caution the patient against the use of an nsaid while on antihypertensive drug therapy?
protano, c.; vitali, m. the new danger of thirdhand smoke: why passive smoking does not stop at secondhand smoke. environ. health perspect. 2011, 119, a422.
Secondhand smoke is described as "the combination of smoke exhaled by the smoker and smoke emitted from the burning end of a cigarette or other tobacco products" (World Health Organization 2007). So, unintentional inhalation of smoke that occurs close to smokers or in enclosed spaces where tobacco has recently been used constitutes secondhand smoke exposure.
Thirdhand smoke is a complicated phenomenon brought on by lingering tobacco smoke particles that stick to smokers' clothes and hair as well as to surfaces, furniture, and dust in enclosed spaces.These toxins continue to exist long after the odor of secondhand smoke has subsided. They either reemit into the gas phase or combine with oxidants or other substances in the environment to create secondary pollutants, some of which are hazardous to human health or carcinogenic (Matt et al. 2011). Thirdhand smoke exposure is thus defined as the inadvertent intake of tobacco smoke and other related substances that takes place in the absence of concurrent smoking and happens mostly by breathing, but also through ingestion and cutaneous routes. Through close contact with smokers and in settings where tobacco is frequently smoked indoors, exposure can occur even years after a person stops smoking.For studies analyzing passive smoking exposure in indoor settings, particularly in home settings, this terminology issue is of particular relevance. Since many nations have banned smoking in enclosed public spaces, residential settings have changed from being the primary sources of passive smoking exposure (World Health Organization 2007). When determining the extent of pollutant intake as a result of passive smoking exposure, we think researchers should take into account the separate contributions of secondhand and thirdhand smoke.To learn more about secondhand smoke visit:
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The transactional theory of stress includes both a primary appraisal of a stressor to determine if a demand is stressful, and a secondary appraisal to determine how to cope with the stressor. True or false?.
It is true to say that the transactional theory of stress calls for both a primary assessment of a stressor to identify whether a demand is stressful and a later assessment to decide how to deal with the stressor.
Lazarus and Folkman (1984) created the most influential theory of stress and coping, which described stress as the outcome of an imbalance between perceived internal or external demands and the perceived personal and societal resources to deal with them.
The amount of stress is reliant on cognitive assessment and is seen as a potentially stressful occurrence that involves a transaction between the person and their surroundings.
Primary appraisal, secondary evaluation, and emotional forecasting are the first two phases of cognitive appraisal.
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How could the prevalence of a disease increase over time while the incidence remains the same? Explain.
Prevalence (fullness of the basin) will decrease if the incidence of the disease remains constant but the rate of mortality from the condition or the rate of cure rises.
The prevalence will increase if incidence stays the same while prevalent patients' lives are extended but they aren't cured.
How are incidence and prevalence related to one another?Incidence is the percentage or rate of people who develop a condition within a specific time period, as opposed to prevalence, which refers to the proportion of people who have a condition at or during a specific time period. The difference between prevalence and incidence percentage is that the former includes all instances—both new and old—in the population at the time in question, whereas the latter only includes new cases.
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When interviewing a client with internal hemorrhoids, what would the nurse expect the client to report?
When interviewing a client with internal hemorrhoids, the nurse should expect the client to report that Internal hemorrhoids cause bleeding but are less likely to cause pain, unless they protrude through the anus.
what is Hemorrhoid?This refers to a medical condition which is characterized by the swelling of the vein in the rectal part of the rectal and anus of the affected individual as a result of different types of factors.
Hemorrhoids consists of two types which are Internal and external hemorrhoids. The former cause bleeding but are less likely to cause pain, unless they protrude through the anus.
On the other hand external hemorrhoids causes few symptoms which include producing pain, itching, and soreness of the anus area and is therefore what the nurse expects the client to report about this condition.
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A nurse is preparing to administer medications. which patient would the nurse consider to have the greatest predisposition to an adverse reaction?
A thirty year old male with kidney disease would have the greatest predisposition to an adverse effect.
Because of potential excretion issues, the person with poor renal function will be at risk of having this medicine accumulate to a hazardous level. Cystitis is a bladder infection, not typically the source of excretion issues that could result in a negative drug reaction. A patient wouldn't be more likely to experience a negative drug reaction if they had a respiratory tract illness. Because medicines are neither metabolized or excreted through the lungs, having a respiratory tract infection would not put a patient at risk for experiencing an adverse reaction. Due to his age, a 9-year-old youngster would not have the "Greatest" tendency to an unfavorable reaction, nor would an ear infection increase his risk.
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a pregnant client wants to know why the labor of a primigravida usually lasts longer than that of a woman who has already given birth once and is pregnant a second time. what explanation should the nurse offer the client?
a 37-year-old man presents with worsening back pain for 1 week. he states that he has had back pain for years, but over the last week, his pain has increased, and he now has weakness in his legs. physical examination reveals 4/5 strength in the left leg and 3/5 strength in the right leg with decreased sensation. he has numbness to his buttocks and a post-void residual of 150 ml. what imaging study should be obtained
The imaging study that should be obtained is MRI of the lumbar spine.
What is MRI ?
A magnetic field and radio waves produced by a computer are used in the medical imaging procedure known as magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), which produces precise images of your body's organs and tissues. Large, magnetized tubes make up the majority of MRI equipment.
Possible cauda equina syndrome; urgent MRI recommended. Multiple lumbar and sacral nerve roots are compressed as a result of the syndrome, which is typically brought on by a central disk herniation.
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What research on intact brain patients resulted in the understanding of the relative speeds of verbal and virtual-spatial processing in the two hemispheres?.
The research on intact brain patients resulted in the understanding of the relative speeds of verbal and virtual-spatial processing in the two hemispheres is called hemisphere specialization
What is hemisphere specialization?Hemispheric specialization describes how the left or right brain plays a different role in handling a particular neural task or behavior. Because of particular anatomical and/or computational traits, one hemisphere may be predisposed to assume a function. Speech, thought, emotions, reading, writing, and learning are all controlled by the cerebrum, which is one-half of the brain. The muscles on the left side of the body are controlled by the right hemisphere, while those on the right side are controlled by the left hemisphere.The study on patients with intact brains that led to an understanding of the velocities of virtual-spatial and linguistic processing in the two hemispheres is hemisphere specializationResearchers discovered that the two hemispheres of the brain divide due to their distinct speeds. As a result, the hemispheres began to specialize, with each component of the brain performing a unique purpose.
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(A) hemisphere specialization is the research on intact brain patients resulted in the understanding of the relative speeds of verbal and virtual-spatial processing in the two hemispheres.
The difference in how the left and right sides of the brain handle various neural tasks or behaviors is known as hemispheric specialization or hemisphere specialization. Because of certain anatomical and/or computational traits, one hemisphere may be inclined to assume a role.
Researchers discovered that the two hemispheres of the brain divide due to their distinct speeds. As a result, the hemispheres began to specialize, with each component of the brain performing a unique purpose. Option A is the proper response, thus.
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Question correction:
What research on intact brain patients resulted in the understanding of the relative speeds of verbal and virtual-spatial processing in the two hemispheres?
A. hemisphere specialization
B. brain plasticity
C. hemisphere communication
D. brain neurogenesis
a new perioperative nurse is being educated regarding surgical asepsis. what observations by the preceptor would indicate that there is a need for reinforcement of the principles of asepsis? select all that apply.
The nurse's back is facing the sterile field.
The nurse touches an unsterile object to the instrument tray.
The nurse is talking with the scrub nurse over the sterile field.
these are the observations by the preceptor.
What does surgical asepsis mean?Surgical asepsis is the absence of all microorganisms within any type of invasive procedure.
The sterile technique is a set of specific practices and procedures performed to make equipment and areas free from all microorganisms and to maintain that sterility (BC Centre for Disease Control, 2010).
Operating rooms, labor and delivery rooms, and special procedures or diagnostic areas are where the sterile technique is most frequently used.
Additionally, it is employed when performing sterile procedures at the patient's bedside, such as inserting devices into sterile body cavities or regions (e.g., insertion of chest tube, central venous line, or indwelling urinary catheter).
When the integrity of the skin is accessed, compromised, or broken in medical care, a sterile technique is always employed (e.g., burns or surgical incisions).
The use of sterile tools, sterile clothing, and sterile gloves are examples of sterile techniques (Perry et al., 2014).
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the first scientist that invented
vaccine
Answer:
Edward Jenner i believe
the nurse is preparing a sterile field for a procedure in the client’s presence. which is the most appropriate instruction to give the client in this situation?
Sterile fields must always be kept in sight to be considered sterile.
Which five aseptic technique principles are there?The following are some of these guidelines: Use only sterile objects in a sterile environment; sterile persons are gowned and gloved; sterile personnel work in a sterile environment (sterile personnel only touch sterile objects or areas; unsterile personnel only contact unsterile objects or areas).
Sterile field must always be kept in sight throughout entire sterile procedure. Never return your back on the sterile field as sterility cannot guaranteed.
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the nurse is working with a client who is following a low-protein predialysis diet to delay the progression of nondiabetic renal disease. the client weighs 100 kilograms and is working to control hypertension. how many grams of protein should the client consume per day?
About 30 to 60 grams of protein should the client consume per day if the client weighs 100 kilograms and is working to control hypertension and is following a low-protein predialysis diet to delay the progression of nondiabetic renal disease.
Your body need protein to satisfy its demands each day, but if you have kidney disease, your body might not be able to completely flush out the waste that is included in the protein you consume. Your circulation can get clogged with extra protein waste, which can lead to nausea, an appetite loss, weakness, and altered tastes.
There is little regulation of blood pressure (BP) in chronic renal disease (CKD). In patients with CKD stages 4 and 5, we evaluated the effects of three different diets on blood pressure: a very low protein diet (VLPD), a low protein diet (LPD, 0.60 g/kg/day), and a free diet (FD). There were more vegetable proteins in VLPD (66%) than in LPD (48%).
This is why a 100 kg person (LPD, 0.60 g/kg/day), needs about 30 to 60 grams of protein.
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How does the healthcare facility utilize the United States Postal Service (USPS) and
other delivery companies?
a patient calls the clinic to report exposure to poison ivy and an itchy rash that is not helped with over-the-counter antihistamines. what response by the nurse is most appropriate?
Ravon is deaf. He was born without the ability to hear, and has never experienced an auditory stimulus. When people write using "sound" type words like "loud," "soft," and "quiet," he sometimes has difficulty understanding what they are trying to convey. Ravon has ________ deafness.
Ravon is deaf. He was born without the ability to hear and has never experienced an auditory stimulus. When people write using "sound" type words like "loud," "soft," and "quiet," he sometimes has difficulty understanding what they are trying to convey. Ravon has congenital deafness.
In the field of medicine, congenital deafness is a kind of deafness in which the person has the inability to hear since birth. Such kind of deafness may occur due to genetic causes or non-genetic causes such as infection or premature babies. People with congenital deafness are unable to convert sound energy into the electrical energy of nerve impulses.
In the case above, Ravon is deaf since birth hence he has difficulty perceiving what people are trying to express when they write about a sound. As he has never sensed an auditory stimulus, he does not understand what loud, soft, or quiet noise is.
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identify the systolic blood pressure threshold for withholding fibrinolytic therapy to otherwise eligible patients with acute ischemic stroke within what time frame
The cutoff for withholding fibrinolytic treatment from otherwise qualified individuals with acute ischemic stroke is 185 mm Hg for systolic blood pressure.
What is blood pressure?The force of moving blood exerted on blood vessel walls is known as blood pressure (BP).The heart pumps blood via the circulatory system, which causes the majority of this pressure.The pressure in the major arteries is referred to as "blood pressure" when used without further qualifier.In the cardiac cycle, blood pressure is often stated as the ratio of the systolic pressure (the maximum pressure during one pulse) to the diastolic pressure (the minimum pressure between two heartbeats).It is expressed as an increase in air pressure in millimetres of mercury (mmHg).To know more about blood pressure, refer to the following link:
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Which common causes would the nurse identify for accumulation of fluid in the alveoli and interstitial spaces of the lungs? select all that apply.
Heart failure in a syndrome that occurs when a pulmonary vein occurs, as a precondition of cardiac health functioning conditions, hypercoagulability, patient immobility and older age.
Heart failureWhat is Pulmonary edema?Pulmonary edema is an emergency situation when fluid builds up inside the lungs. This situation of intensity of the dive, verified breathing difficulties and drowning sensation. The condition of acute edema is also called or simply “water on weight”
What happens when a person has a pulmonary embolism?Pulmonary embolism is a disease caused by the clogging of one or more arteries in the lung. The problem is caused by a clot blocking the flow of blood through the artery. This clot usually forms in other parts of the body and ends up in the lung.
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Which common causes would the nurse identify for accumulation of fluid in the alveoli and interstitial spaces of the lungs? Select all that apply.
Heart failure
Oxygen toxicity
Opioid overuse
the parents of a hospitalized 10-year-old ask the nurse if they can review the health care records of their child. what is the appropriate response from the nurse?
when a nurse is planning for a home care plan for a patient with visual and hearing deficits, is the highest priority that the nurse needs to consider.
Setting priorities deals with selecting a preferential sequence for managing nursing diagnoses and interventions. In this step, the nurse and the customer begin planning which nursing diagnosis needs attention first.
What is an applicable nursing intervention for a patient who has a visual impairment?
Arrange her personal and self-care items within space, as she directs you, or introduce her to their placement. Recognize and explain unfamiliar sounds, such as monitor alarms. When you help her stride, ask which side she prefers you on. Offer her your component or elbow for her to grasp.
What is a priority check?Priority Assessment means an evaluation of the possible risk for a food-borne illness to appear in a food assistance facility using a given set of parameters as specified by the Department in Regulation.
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a client experienced a fight-or-flight response immediately following a car accident. what clinical symptoms would the nurse expect to assess? select all that apply.
The clinical symptoms would the nurse expect to assess are:
Rising heart rate
Reduced digestion
Pallor, heightened awareness.
What is fight-or-flight response?
The physiological response known as the "fight-or-flight" or "fight-flight-or-freeze" response happens in response to an incident that is deemed to be harmful, an attack, or a threat to one's survival.
The sympathetic nervous system readies the body for a fight-or-flight reaction when an event occurs that the mind regards as harmful. Clinical manifestations of the sympathetic nervous system include elevated heart rate, slowed digestion, acute awareness, and pallor. When danger has passed, the parasympathetic nervous system restores homeostasis by causing pupil constriction and relaxed muscle tone.
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the nurse is caring for a client at 8 weeks' gestation who states, "i did not plan for this right now and i am not happy or excited about this pregnancy. i am not sure what to do." which response by the nurse is best?
“During the first trimester, many women experience this.” Option B would be the best response by the nurse during this situation to handle the client about pregnancy.
Fetus during the First trimesterThe fetus grows out from a fertilized ovum to about 6 cm long at 12 weeks during the first trimester. Your baby’s heart begins to beat around the end of the first trimester, and the brain, stomach, and intestines are growing as well.
What is a pregnancy’s first trimester?These trimesters are used to categories the type of pregnancies the first trimester lasts from week one to week twelve.
The second trimester has been already set to be comprised from week 13 through the end of week 26. After this Week 27 takes upto the pregnancy by the end of the third trimester.
The eventual very essential period of growth of any unborn child happens during this first trimester itself and hence this phase is very important.
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Complete Question
The nurse is caring for a client at 8 weeks' gestation who states, "I did not plan for this right now and I am not happy or excited about this pregnancy. I am not sure what to do." Which response by the nurse is best?
A. "We can refer you to a clinic for potential termination if you desire."
B. "Many women feel this way during the first trimester."
C. "You will become excited and happy when you feel the baby move."
D. "Do not worry. Once you hold this baby, everything will be fine."
the laboring client who is at 3 cm dilation (dilatation) and 25% effaced is asking for a narcotic for pain relief. the nurse explains this usually is not administered prior to the establishment of the active phase. what is the appropriate rationale for this practice?
a client has been prescribed baclofen and will be taking the drug on an outpatient basis. the client asks the nurse if it is still okay to drink wine with meals or end the day with a ""nightcap."" what is the nurse’s best response?
The client asks the nurse if it is still okay to drink wine with meals or end the day with a ""nightcap."" Report the findings to the primary health care provider immediately is the nurse’s best response.
Primary health care provider
Primary healthcare refers to a wide range of community-based healthcare professionals. A primary healthcare provider is any healthcare professional who is the health system's first point of contact. When they have a non-emergency health problem, most people visit their GP (sometimes known as the 'local doctor'). The primary healthcare system also includes allied health practitioners such as dentists and physiotherapists.
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a low-risk client is in the active phase of labor. the nurse evaluates the fetal monitor strip at 10:00 a.m. and notes the following: moderate variability, fhr in the 130s, occasional accelerations, and no decelerations. at what time should the nurse reevaluate the fhr?
The nurse examines the fetal monitor strip and observes the following: moderate fluctuation, fhr in the 130s, infrequent accelerations, and no decelerations. The nurse should review the fhr at 10:30 a.m.
Fetal monitor strips
Standard (external) fetal monitor strips (also known as fetal monitoring strips) are little devices that are attached to the mother's stomach/'baby bump' to monitor the child's heartbeat. The fetal monitor strips accomplish this by capturing and tracking the baby's heart activity using Doppler ultrasound. Some fetal monitor strips will also keep a baseline for comparison, providing medical practitioners with extra information about the child's status. Internal monitor strips can also be used, but they must be properly dilated and attached to the child's head.
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