The nurse is teaching a client with a diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis about recovery after discharge. which is the most important intervention for the nurse to include in this plan?

Answers

Answer 1

The most important intervention for the nurse to include in the discharge plan is taking medicines as prescribed.

What is tuberculosis?

A contagious illness called tuberculosis can infect your lungs or other tissues. The organs most frequently affected by it are the lungs, although it can also harm your spine, brain, or kidneys. The Latin root of the term "tuberculosis" means "nodule" or "anything that stands out."

A second name for tuberculosis is TB. Not everyone who contracts TB becomes ill, but if you do, you need to get treated. If you have the bacteria but no symptoms, you have latent tuberculosis, also known as dormant tuberculosis (also called latent TB).

Although it may appear that TB has disappeared, it is really latent (sleeping) inside your body. If you have active tuberculosis or tuberculosis illness, you are infected, experience symptoms, and are spreadable (TB disease).

Therefore, taking medicines as prescribed is the most important intervention to be included in the discharge plan.

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Related Questions

a nurse is interviewing at an agency owned by a national religious organization that serves homeless and uninsured patients. a large poster display shows a proposed addition that would add 16 beds to the facility that will be funded from profits of the previous 3 years of operation. the nurse recognizes that the agency is most likely what type of agency?

Answers

the answer is : a very good and well agency.
Not for profit of course

when a family member of a client with cardiogenic shock asks the nurse for more information about the condition, how would the nurse describe cardiogenic shock

Answers

The nurse should describe that cardiogenic shock is (2) A failure of the circulatory pump.

Cardiogenic shock, also known as cardiac shock, occurs when your heart is unable to adequately supply the brain and other essential organs with blood and oxygen. A life-threatening emergency has occurred. It is crucial to be aware of the warning signals since it is curable if discovered quickly.

When a pump failure results in reduced cardiac output, cardiogenic shock happens. Cardiogenic shock is a form of circulatory shock that happens when the ventricular pump function is severely impaired as opposed to when there are problems with the vascular system or blood volume.

It is crucial to distinguish between hypotension, in which tissue metabolic demands may be satisfied by raising cardiac output or lowering systemic resistance, and the shock state, in which tissue perfusion is insufficient.

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Question correction:

When a family member of a client with cardiogenic shock asks the nurse for more information about the condition, how would the nurse describe cardiogenic shock?

An irreversible phenomenonA failure of the circulatory pumpUsually a fleeting reaction to tissue injuryGenerally caused by decreased blood volume

a nurse is assigned to care for a pregnant client as she undergoes a nonstress test. place the steps involved in conducting the nonstress test in the correct order from first to last. all options must be used.

Answers

The complete question with options are:

1 Application of one external electronic fetal monitoring equipment.

2 The client is lying on his left side in a reclined position.

3 The client eats a meal.

4 Fetal monitor strip with fetal movement markings

5 An event marker is given to the client.

External electronic fetal-monitoring device applied,  An event marker is given to the client, Fetal monitor strip with fetal movement markings, of the pregnant lady.

What are the nonstress test in the correct order to care for a pregnant lady?

A meal should be consumed before to the nonstress test by the patient. To prevent supine hypotension syndrome, the client is then positioned in a lateral recumbent position. Her abdomen is fitted with an external electronic fetal monitoring equipment.

A "event marker" is given to the client, who presses the button on it each time she feels fetal movement. The fetal monitor strip is marked to show that fetal movement has taken place when the button is pushed.

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What is it called when the brain deals with overload by simplifying and linking new information to what we already know? schema selective perception heuristics availablity

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Heuristics is the term when the brain deals with overload by simplifying and linking new information to what we already know.

Heuristics is the problem solving ability of the brain. It is a kind of shortcut technique applied by the brain to simplify the large and complex information. This enable to judge or reach to the result in the quickest way possible.

There are good as well as bad effects of heuristics. While it enables a person to solve the problem quickly, it may hinder with the thinking and correct judgement potential of the brain. Therefore heuristics can hamper other cognitive skills of the brain.

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\according to the myplate analysis report, empty calories should exceed no more than 362 calories for someone like miya. how many empty calories did miya consume on this 1-day menu?

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Approximately 250 empty calories may be consumed by Miya in a 1-day meal.

The calories that are deficient in the nutrients found in some food items are referred to as empty calories. A high intake of empty calories leads to weight gain and other health problems. The amount of empty calories that should be consumed in a day varies with the age, sex, and physical activity of a person. A person who indulged more in physical exercise can ineffectively consume more empty calories than a sedentary person.

An adult should consume approximately 2000 healthy calories in a day. A balanced diet is the most effective tool to take the required calories in appropriate amounts. Carbohydrates, proteins, and fats are the macronutrients in a diet that provide calories. Carbohydrates and proteins contain 4 calories per gram while fats contain 9 calories per gram.

Consumption of empty calories can vary from person to person depending on their lifestyle and biological factors. If a person is advised not to consume more than 365 empty calories, then he/she should not exceed more than 250 empty calories in his 1-day meal.

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The replication cycle of t7 virus has several things that none of the other virus replication cycles include. What is one of these things?.

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The replication cycle of t7 virus has several things that none of the other virus replication cycles include. The second stage of virus replication only occurs in T7 when an opening is created through the membrane of the bacterium.

What is  replication cycle ?

Different viral species and groups may have replication cycles that varied greatly. However, there are normally six main stages for viral replication to be effective. These entail the release, replication, attachment, penetration, and uncoating of virion.

The t7 virus injects its DNA into the cell rather than allowing the entire viral structure to be eaten by the host cell.

Distinct viral species and groups might have quite different replication cycles. Nevertheless, for viral replication to be effective, there are typically six major phases. These involve virion release, replication, uncoating, attachment, penetration, and uncoating.

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This protozoa lives in warm freash water, and is transmitted from the environment and into the host when contaminated water enters the nasla cavity. The disease it causes has a 97% fatality rate.

Answers

Answer:

Naegleria fowleri

Explanation:

a​ 76-year-old female fell while walking to her bathroom. she is now on the floor and reports severe pain to her right hip. her airway is patent and her breathing adequate. family members tell you that she takes medication for high blood​ pressure, high​ cholesterol, and depression. when assessing the​ patient, which assessment finding is most​ concerning?

Answers

Checking the Heart rate of 128 beats per minute assessment finding

is most​ concerning.

Why do Cardiac arrests happen in the bathroom?

when assessing the​ patient Quietly transport the patient and inform

the emergency department physician.

Even in the bathroom, cardiac arrest can occur. That's because certain routine activities, like using the restroom or bathing, may contribute to cardiac arrest.

There are some difficulties when a cardiac arrest occurs in the restroom. Since bathrooms are frequently considered private areas, treatment may occasionally be postponed if you require assistance while using one.

Let's discuss the fundamentals of cardiac arrest, in-depth reasons why it might occur in restrooms, and what to do if you require medical assistance while in the restroom.

When using the restroom, you can also put the following safe behaviors into practice:

Never submerge your chest under hot water.

When you're in the bathtub, set a timer or alarm.

After taking a sleep or relaxant medication, avoid taking a hot bath.

When using the restroom, keep your phone close by on the counter so you can use it to call for help in an emergency.

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A client is ordered to receive an intramuscular injection of medication. when preparing to administer the injection, the nurse selects the ventrogluteal site based on which reason?

Answers

At the ventrogluteal site, fat and large blood vessels are absent from the area. There are no large blood arteries, nerves or fat deposits at the ventrogluteal location for intramuscular injection.

It is regarded as the most secure and comfortable location.

Dorso gluteal site

The Dorso gluteal location has a significant likelihood of injecting into subcutaneous fat and is close to the sciatic nerve. The deltoid region, which is used for intramuscular injections, is near to the radial nerve and has little overlying subcutaneous fat.

Why is an intramuscular injection most frequently performed at the ventrogluteal region?

The area on the most visible part of the hip known as the ventrogluteal injection site is thought to be the best location for intramuscular injections.

The area’s robust thigh muscles make it one of the safest places for such injections, according to experts.

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the nurse is admitting a primigravida client who has just presented to the unit in early labor. which response should the nurse prioritize to assist the client in remaining calm and cooperative during birth?

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The nurse prioritize to assist the client in remaining calm and cooperative during birth is "Baby is on the way. I'll assist you and explain what's happening."

What is early labor?

The preliminary symptoms of labor are referred to as pre-labor. It is the body's method of preparing for actual labor. False labor has been used to refer to prodromal labor. Although prodromal labor starts out similarly to typical labor, the baby does not actually deliver.

Your likelihood of preterm labor and early delivery is highest if you have the following risk factors: In the past, you gave birth to a premature child. You are carrying several children. You currently have uterine or cervix issues, or you previously did.

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A patient has a variety of cellular problems, including proteins in the endomembrane system going to the wrong locations, and no synthesis of estrogen or testosterone. Identify the organelle-symptom pair that is defective.

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A patient has a variety of cellular problems, including proteins in the endomembrane system going to the wrong locations, and no synthesis of estrogen or testosterone. The organelle-symptom pair that is defective for these cellular problems is rough ER and smooth ER.

In a cell,  both rough and smooth endoplasmic reticulums are present.

The rough endoplasmic reticulum (ER) is located near the cell membrane whereas the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (ER) is located near the cytoplasm.

Both these organelles play a significant role in the formation and storage of proteins, steroids, and lipids.

Smooth endoplasmic does not have ribosomes and it only takes part in the formation and storage of steroids and lipids.

While the surface of rough ER contains ribosomes and is responsible for the synthesis of a large variety of proteins.

If rough ER is inoperative then it will not synthesize for Golgi apparatus, plasma membrane, and extracellular secretion.

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the nurse discovers a new prescription for rho(d) immune globulin for a client who is about to undergo a diagnostic procedure. the nurse will administer the rho(d) immune globulin after which procedure?

Answers

The nurse will administer the rho(d) immune globulin after Amniocentesis.

Amniocentesis- Amniotic fluid is taken from the uterus during an amniocentesis operation to be tested or treated. The fluid that surrounds and shields a developing fetus during pregnancy is called amniotic fluid. Various proteins and fetal cells are present in this fluid.

This treatment may be carried out in the later stages of pregnancy to assess the health of the fetus and identify any health issues, such as infections. Amniocentesis may be performed to examine the fetal lung development in cases when an early delivery is anticipated. The fluid is sent to a laboratory where the cells can develop and be examined.

The given question is incomplete, find below the complete question,

Q. The nurse discovers a new prescription for RhoGAM for a client who is about to undergo a diagnostic procedure. The nurse will administer the RhoGAM after which procedure?

a. Contraction stress test

b. Amniocentesis

c. Nonstress test

d. Biophysical profile

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a nurse is caring for a 78-year-old client who was admitted after a femur fracture. the primary care provider placed the client on bed rest. which action should the nurse perform to prevent a pressure injury?

Answers

A nurse is caring for a 78-year-old client who was admitted after a femur fracture. The primary care provider placed the client on bed rest. The nurse should perform the use pillows to maintain a side-lying position as needed action to prevent a pressure injury.

The nursing staff is able to change positions to relieve and alternate pressure on the client's bony prominences by using cushions to maintain a side-lying position. At least once every two hours, the client's position needs to be adjusted. In order to reduce wetness and skin irritation, incontinent care should be given at least every two hours and as needed. A foot board stops customers from dropping their feet, however it does not reduce the chance of developing pressure sores.

Femur- The longest and sturdiest bone in our body is the thighbone, or femur. Because of the femur's strength, breaking it often requires a lot of power. For instance, femur fractures are most frequently caused by car accidents. The femoral shaft is the name given to the long, straight portion of the femur.

The given question is incomplete, find below the complete question,

Q. A nurse is caring for a 78-year-old client who was admitted after a femur fracture. The primary care provider placed the client on bed rest. Which action should the nurse perform to prevent a pressure ulcer?

A) Use pillows to maintain a side-lying position as needed.

B) Elevate the head of the bed 90 degrees.

C) Place a foot board on the bed.

D) Provide incontinent care every 4 hours as needed.

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What helped medicine progress faster in the 20th century than in all previous years?.

Answers

Answer:

Enormous improvements in communication between scientists throughout the world. 

a client with diabetes received lab results showing a total cholesterol level of 220 mg/dl, hdl 38 mg/dl, and ldl 140mg/dl. which food choice will the nurse encourage the client to avoid as the priority?

Answers

Red meat of courses

A nurse is unhappy about the way medications are being administered on the unit. what does the nurse need to do first to facilitate a change in the process?

Answers

The nurse needs to first facilitate a change in the process to develop a better method to administer the medications. The correct option is c.

Who is a nurse?

A nurse is a person who assists the doctor and takes care of patients. They know basic health care and medication. They study medicine, and they take care of the additional work in a hospital or a clinic.

If a nurse would not like the way to medication, then he should better the management and the facilities.

Therefore, the correct option is c. Develop a better method to administer the medications.

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The question is incomplete. Your most probably complete question is given below:

a. Initiate a new method starting with assigned patients.

b. Discuss concerns with fellow nurses.

c. Develop a better method to administer the medications.

d. Inform the charge nurse of how it can be done better.

Mental storge capability to which stimuli in short-term memory can be transferred if they are connected to existing schema and in which information can be stored indefinitely.

Answers

Mental storage capability in short-term memory can be transferred if they are connected to existing schema and in long term memory information can be stored indefinitely.

The term "short-term memory" refers to the memory processes in the brain that are responsible for storing information for brief periods of time, frequently up to 30 seconds.

A sort of "visuospatial" sketch of the information the brain has lately taken in and will later turn into memories is created by short-term memory.

A limitless amount of data can be stored in long-term memory for an infinitely long time. In the hippocampus, a part of the brain, short-term memories are transformed into long-term memories. These long-term memories are kept in the cortex, a different area of the brain.

It is possible that long-term memory has an infinite storage capacity, with availability rather than accessibility serving as the primary restriction on recall.

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the food and drug administration (fda) has legal oversight over most food products and permits some health claims on food labels. the claims that are allowed at this time describe links between a few dietary practices and health outcomes. drag the dietary practice to its appropriate fda-permissible health claim.

Answers

Here are the right matches:

1. Reduced risk of neural tube defects- diet adequate in synthetic form of folate

2. Reduced risk of hypertension and stroke- diet low in sodium and high in potassium

3. Reduced risk of cardiovascular disease- fatty acids from oils present in fish

4. Reduced risk of some types of cancer- diet rich in fiber

The neural tube, which is in charge of the development of the brain and spine, closes within the first 28 days of pregnancy. A neural tube defect may result from insufficient folate concentrations preventing the closure of the neural tube.If you have high blood pressure, increasing your potassium intake can help lower it. On the other hand, eating too much sodium might make your blood pressure go up. If you have high blood pressure, sometimes referred to as hypertension, cutting back on your sodium intake is extremely crucial.It is well known that saturated fatty acids (SFA) raise LDL cholesterol, a major risk factor for cardiovascular disease.To reduce the chance of developing cancer, the AICR advises consuming at least 30 grams of dietary fiber daily as part of a balanced eating regimen.

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an older adult client experiencing recurrent tension headaches reports taking an over-the-counter (otc) combination of acetaminophen, aspirin, and caffeine several times a week. the nurse should recognize that this combination medication may be contraindicated if the client has a history of what medical condition?

Answers

Gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding is the patient medical condition.

What is Gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding?GI bleeding is a symptom of a disease, not a disease itself.

Hemorrhoids, peptic ulcers, tears or inflammation in the esophagus, diverticulosis and diverticulitis, ulcerative colitis and Crohn's disease, colonic polyps, or cancer in the colon, stomach, or esophagus are just a few of the many potential causes of GI bleeding.

GI bleeding symptoms and signs can either be overtly obvious or covert (occult).

The location of the bleed, which can occur anywhere along the GI tract from the mouth to the anus, and the rate of bleeding determine the signs and symptoms.

GI bleeding frequently stops on its own. If not, the type of treatment depends on where the bleeding originated.

In many instances, a procedure or dose of medication to control bleeding can be administered during some tests.

A bleeding peptic ulcer can occasionally be treated during an upper endoscopy, and polyps can occasionally be removed during a colonoscopy.

In order to reduce stomach acid production in cases of upper GI bleeding, a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) may be administered intravenously.

Your doctor will decide whether you need to keep taking a PPI after determining the cause of the bleeding.

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What is placed inside the patient when they have an arrhythmia?

Answers

Usually a pacemaker to regulate the rhythm of the patients heart back into normal sinus rhythm

If you could make one thing in the world free to everyone, what would you choose and why? How would this change the world?

Answers

Healthcare. Healthcare is a human right and should be available to everyone no matter your socioeconomic standing.

This could possibly change countries like America’s healthcare system for the better long-term but possibly not short-term as they may lose money initially. However, they may eventually have a healthier population.
Countries like Australia and Germany for example have free healthcare and they have generally healthy populations where there is always access to health care available.

Which assessment finding in a patient who is prescribed a beta2 agonist would be a reason for the nurse to consult the prescriber?

Answers

The assessment finding in a patient who is prescribed a beta2 agonist would be a reason for the nurse to consult the prescriber is known to be called the option c. unexplained fainting.

What causes someone to pass out?

If a person faint briefly lose consciousness, it is known to be called fainting.

It is seen as a  sudden decrease in regards to blood supply to the brain and that is what causes it. A brief period of unconsciousness is as a result of abrupt reduction in blood pressure.

The alteration in the blood vessels or the heartbeat itself will most likely be the form 0r origin of this quick reduction. Therefore, The assessment finding in a patient who is prescribed a beta2 agonist would be a reason for the nurse to consult the prescriber is known to be called the option c. unexplained fainting.

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Which assessment finding in a patient who is prescribed a beta2 adrenergic agonist would be a reason for the nurse to consult the prescriber?

a. BP 140/90

b. SMBG 165 mg/dL

c. unexplained fainting

d. unexplained tremor

You are providing first aid to an unresponsive victim who has been stabbed and is bleeding profusely. you should not provide care until a next-of-kin can provide consent.
a. true
b. false

Answers

Answer: False!!!

Hope this helped

The estimated heritability of 48 percent for neuroticism in the population supports the claim that.

Answers

It supports the claim that (D) the variability in neuroticism is due partly to genetic variability in the population

The degree of neuroticism a person has is a good indicator of their emotional stability. It is occasionally referred as as a negative personality trait characterized by unpleasant emotions, poor self-regulation (an inability to regulate wants), difficulties handling stress, a strong reaction to perceived risks, and a predisposition for complaining.

The IRT-based scores for neuroticism and extraversion were heritable (48 and 49%, respectively) according to a meta-analysis of six twin cohorts with a combined N of 29,496 and 29,501 twin pairs, with a significant amount of the heritability related to non-additive genetic factors.

The extraversion of these genetic factors varies substantially between sexes. The item-response theory method can be applied to any mega- or meta-analytic inquiry that calls for the harmonization of item-based behavioral measurements.

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Question correction:

The estimated heritability of 48 percent for neuroticism in the population supports the claim that

A) the population in general has a recessive gene for neuroticism

B) the incidence of neuroticism is associated with that of another distinct trait

C) those with the neurotic trait share a particular dominant allele

D) the variability in neuroticism is due partly to genetic variability in the population

a nurse is educating a group of nursing students about the molding of the fetal skull during the birth process. what would the nurse include as the usual cause of molding?

Answers

Pressure causes the long head shape at birth

which is the best strategy the nurse manager should include when working to reduce health care disparities in a medical-surgical unit? group of answer choices less diverse workforce authoritarian leadership increase interpreter availability annual staff training

Answers

Increased translator availability is the ideal method the nurse management should implement when attempting to lessen health care disparities in a medical-surgical unit.

What does "health care disparity" mean?Health care disparities are avoidable discrepancies in the burden of illness, harm, violence, or chances to reach optimal health that are felt by communities who are socially disadvantaged.Health disparities are influenced by a variety of factors, such as genetics, access to care, poor care quality, community characteristics (such as lack of access to healthy foods, poverty, a lack of social supports, and violence), environmental factors (such as poor air quality), language barriers, and health behaviours.The lens of race and ethnicity is frequently used to analyse disparities in health and health care, although they exist across a wide variety of variables.For instance, there are differences in financial level, age, region, language, gender, status as a citizen, and sexual identity and orientation.

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a nurse is caring for a client with orthostatic hypotension. the client is currently not taking any antihypertensive medications. which action(s) will the nurse take to reduce the client's risk of falls? select all that apply.

Answers

Give patient call light and tell client to not stand up to fast from lying position.

You're a forensic scientist who found a bone completely enveloped in tendon. What type of bone would you guess right away that it was?

Short Bone
Long Bone
sesamoid bone
Flat bone

Answers

According to the research, the correct option is Long Bone. It is the type of bone a forensic scientist would guess given the description of a bone completely enveloped in tendon.

To find the correct option amongst all other options, we need to know more about Long Bone and which characteristics they have.

What are the characteristics of Long Bones?

The bony structures of the human body that are elongated that  have a body and two ends or points are called Long Bones.

In long bones, the length predominates with respect to the width and thickness and can be enveloped in tendon.

They have an elongated shape, which allows identifying a body and two ends called epiphysis.

Therefore, we can conclude that according to the research, the correct option is Long Bone. It is the type of bone a forensic scientist would guess right away that it was.

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A client is recovering from an ileostomy that was performed to treat inflammatory bowel disease. during discharge teaching, what would the nurse stress the importance of?

Answers

A client is recovering from an ileostomy that was performed to treat inflammatory bowel disease and during discharge teaching, the nurse would stress the importance of increasing fluid intake to prevent dehydration.

Symptoms of inflammatory bowel disease include persistent diarrhea, abdominal pain, rectal bleeding/bloody stools, weight loss, and fatigue.

Purpose of ileostomy is to allow the small intestine or colon to heal once it has been operated on – for instance, if a region of intestine has been removed to treat intestine cancer. to alleviate inflammation of the colon in folks with Crohn's disease or ulcerative colitis to permit for advanced surgery to be applied on the an-us or rectum.

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on a previous clinic visit a month ago, the overweight client reported shortness of breath with activity and constipation. the client was diagnosed as having osteoporosis and noted to have an elevated triglyceride level. the primary care provider prescribed an exercise program. the nurse is assessing for the effects of exercise. what are the expected outcomes for this client? select all that apply.

Answers

The complete question with options are:

-The customer claims that no exercise causes them to feel out of breath.

-The client's weight is either decreased or maintained.

-The customer reports having produced, regular bowel motions.

The expected outcomes are the client claims that no exercise causes them to feel out of breath, the weight is either decreased or maintained, and having produced, regular bowel motions.

What is osteoporosis condition?

The bone tissue in the body is continually absorbed and replaced. In osteoporosis, the production of new bone does not keep up with the loss of old bone.

A bone fracture frequently goes unnoticed until it occurs.

Medication, a nutritious diet, and weight-bearing exercise are all part of the treatment plan to either strengthen existing brittle bones or stop bone loss.

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Diego's stepfather grounded himbecause he cheated on a test at school;it made Diego angry. illQuestion 8According to the Preamble to the Bill of Rights, who had to approve the Bill ofRights before it became law?PreambleCongress of the United States begun and held at the City of New York, on Wednesday the fourthof March, one thousand seven hundred and eighty-nine.THE Conventions of a number of the States, having at the time of their adopting the Constitution,expressed a desire, in order to prevent misconstruction or abuse of its powers, that furtherdeclaratory and restrictive clauses should be added: And as extending the ground of publicconfidence in the Government, will best ensure the beneficent ends of its institution.RESOLVED by the Senate and House of Representatives of the United States of America, inCongress assembled, two thirds of both Houses concurring, that the following Articles beproposed to the Legislatures of the several States, as amendments to the Constitution of theUnited States, all, or any of which Articles, when ratified by three fourths of the said Legislatures,to be valid to all intents and purposes, as part of the said Constitution; viz.ARTICLES in addition to, and Amendment of the Constitution of the United States of America,proposed by Congress, and ratified by the Legislatures of the several States, pursuant to the fifthArticle of the original Constitution.A The president in the Supreme Court B The president C The legislators or the four members of state B The majority of judicial general voting public If the Settlers never left great Britain then where would we be today? Please Help acellus is torture. Constantinople was the center of the Eastern Orthodox religion as evident by what great architectural achievement? There is a basement scene between Lincoln and Thaddeus Stevens which reveals Steven's true feelings about black people, white people, the Confederate States, the Confederate Leaders, and Southern people. Later, he is asked in the Congressional debate whether he believes black people and white people are equal. What is his answer and how does it differ from what his answer was expected to be?A.He argued that black people and white people should be 100% equal in everything.B.The radical republicans (and everyone else) expected him to speak about total equality, but he spoke only about equality under the law.C.He argued that black and white people were not equal.D.None of the above what is (18+x) x 28=326? Prompt: Tell me what you know about slope. Be as detailedas possible and write in paragraph form. Some examples youcan expand on would be slope of parallel and perpendicularlines, finding slope on a graph, using slope formula, etc. What is the slope of a line parallel to the line whose equation is 2x-5y=302x5y=30. Fully simplify your answer Please help me I am confused!!!!!!!!!!! Write an analytical paragraph describing two of Romeos motivations in act 1 scene 1 How many 4-digit numbers can be chosen that are even and greater than 3000? Which situation best illustrates how command economies meet their citizens'needs for employment and income?A. A government agency assigns a laborer a job working in a factory.B. A parent teaches a child to farm using centuries-old techniques.C. A corporation hires an engineer who has just graduated fromcollege.D. A religious organization selects a young person to become apriest.