The pelvic inflammatory disease may be diagnosed based on vulva sludge, discomfort in the LLQ and RLQ, dysmenorrhea, and gonococcal infection (PID).
An infection of the female reproductive system is known as a pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). It usually happens when bacteria from sex-related sexual contact spreads from your vulva to your uterus, fallopian tubes, or ovaries.
The pelvic inflammatory disease might present with moderate or modest signs and symptoms. Some women have no symptoms or indicators at all. Because of this, you might not be aware of it until you have difficulties getting pregnant or start experiencing persistent pelvic pain. Sexually transmitted infections (STIs) including gonorrhea, chlamydia, or mycoplasma genitalium are the major cause of PID. The diagnosis of the pelvic inflammatory disease cannot be made by a single test (PID). Your symptoms and results of a gynecological exam are used to diagnose it.
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the nurse is assigned to clients who are having the following procedures: amniocentesis, fetal nonstress test, chorionic villus sampling, percutaneous umbilical blood sampling, and doppler assessment of fetal heart rate. for which clients will the nurse ensure that signed informed consent has been given and is in the client's record?
Amniocentesis, chorionic villus sampling, percutaneous umbilical blood sampling are the procedures of which the nurse will ensure that the client's signed informed consent has been given and is in the client's record.
Amniocentesis is a procedure in which amniotic fluid is removed from the uterus for testing or treatment. This fluid surrounds and protects the baby during pregnancy and contains various proteins and fetal cells. This test has small chance that will lead to miscarriage and thus informed consent form is necessary.
Chorionic villus sampling involves taking a tissue from the placenta to test for chromosomal abnormalities and certain other genetic problems. This test may also cause miscarriage.
Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling, this test takes fetal blood directly from the umbilical cord and is also categorized an invasive test which carries risks and complications.
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a pediatric nurse is talking to parents of a newly admitted toddler. while taking the health history, the father stops the nurse in the middle of a question and says sternly that he is the only one to answer the questions. this form of dysfunction demonstrates a problem with what part of the family structure?
A pediatric nurse is talking to parents of a newly admitted toddler. While taking the health history, the father stops the nurse in the middle of a question and says sternly that he is the only one to answer the questions. this form of dysfunction demonstrates a problem with the power structure of the family.
What is the power structure of the family?The power structure of family plays a huge role in the health functioning of the family. Power is the ability to control, influence or change the behavior of another person. It is related to resources; the person having control on the resources is considered to be the powerful one in the family.
There are three types of power structures:
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assess the part the agency for healthcare research and quality (ahrq) plays in health care information systems acquisition.
Assess the part the agency for healthcare research and quality (ahrq) plays in health care information systems acquisition and its objective is to create evidence that makes health care safer.
What is healthcare?Healthcare sector is the most growing sector now a days. Health care is defined as the whole procedure which includes prevention of the disease, diagnosis of the disease, and treatment of the disease. Health care is practiced and run on its full pledge by the help of healthcare workers and doctors.
The sectors which came in category of healthcare is medicine, midwifery, optometry, audiology, oncology, occupational therapy, and psychology. Healthcare is the practice or effort to achieve the patient's health both physical, emotional as well as mental.
Therefore,Assess the part the agency for healthcare research and quality (ahrq) plays in health care information systems acquisition and its objective is to create evidence that makes health care safer.
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according to the institute of medicine, the five domains of health include all of the following except
According to the institute of medicine, the five domains of health include all of the following except physical movement.
The five domains of healthcare quality are safe, effective, timely, efficient, patient-centered, equitable. These are the six aims of the health care system put forth by the institute of medicine.
Safe is to keep the patients safe with the care that is intended to help them.Effective is to avoid underuse and overuse of the services so that it benefits the patient.Patient centered is to provide care which is respectful to individual patient preferences, needs and values.Timely is to avoid harmful delays for the patients and the care giver.Efficient is to avoid wastage of equipment, supplies, energy etc.Learn more about institute of medicine here:
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the nurse is caring for a client who has been prescribed citalopram and checks the client for which signs/symptoms of serotonin syndrome? select all that apply.
The symptoms of serotonin syndrome are given below:
DiarrheaAbdominal painIncreased blood pressureSerotonin syndrome can occur when you increase the dose of certain medications or start taking a new drug. It's most often caused by combining medications that contain serotonin, such as a migraine medication and an antidepressant. Some illicit drugs and dietary supplements are associated with serotonin syndrome.
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you check the patient's baseline temperature reading and note that it was recorded as 98.6°f (37 °c). what would you expect the temperature reading to be if it were obtained using the rectal route?
You would expect the temperature to be 99.5°F (37.5°C).
What is rectal route?
Rectal administration employs the rectum as a route of administration for drugs and other liquids. These substances are absorbed by the blood vessels in the rectum and flow into the circulatory system, which then distributes the medication throughout the body's organs and biological systems.
It is generally agreed that the normal body temperature is 98.6°F (37°C). According to some research, the "normal" range for body temperature is between 97°F (36.1°C) and 99°F (37.2°C). The majority of the time, a fever brought on by an infection or disease is indicated by a temperature exceeding 100.4°F (38°C).
Question:
You check the patient baseline temperature reading and note that it was recorded at 98.6°F (37°C). What would you expect the temperature reading to be if it was obtained using the rectal route?
1. 98.6°F (37°C)
2. 99.5°F (37.5°C)
3. 97.7°F (36.5°C)
4. 99.1°F (37.3°C)
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a client is receiving external radiation to the left thorax to treat lung cancer. which intervention should be part of this client's care plan?
The healthcare intervention which should be part of this client's care plan receiving external radiation to the left thorax to treat lung cancer is by educating and encouraging the patient to avoid using soap on the irradiated areas
Healthcare interventionHealthcare intervention can simply be defined as those measures, efforts and attempt to improve the health conditions of individuals or a community with health conditions.
Some of these healthcare interventions include the following
Treatment of infectionsVaccination programsScreening programs and so onSo therefore, the healthcare intervention which should be part of this client's care plan receiving external radiation to the left thorax to treat lung cancer is by educating and encouraging the patient to avoid using soap on the irradiated areas
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intermediate-term outcomes after transcatheter aortic valve implantation in patients with a history of atrial fibrillation
Intermediate-term outcomes after transcatheter aortic valve implantation _in patients with a history of atrial fibrillation:
Atrial fibrillation (A fib) is linked to outcomes after TAVI, such as stroke_, and significant bleedings (restricted to new-onset A Fib). New-onset A Fib is associated with an increased risk of an early stroke_ and significant bleedings when compared to pre-existing A fib. There is still a need for better A Fib management in the TAVI environment, including customized antithrombotic therapy approaches.
A-fib, or atrial fibrillation, is an irregular and frequently very rapid heart rhythm (arrhythmia) that can cause heart blood clots. Stroke and other heart-related issues are all made more likely by A-fib.
Study on intermediate-term outcomes after transcatheter aortic valve implantation in patients with a history of atrial fibrillation:
There was pairwise and network meta-analysis. Major bleeding_, stroke were the outcomes of interest.
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physician direction of emergency medical systems (ems) emergency care, advanced life support. assign the cpt code.
Physician direction of emergency medical systems (ems) emergency care, advanced life support. assign the cpt code is 99288.
What is healthcare?Healthcare sector is the most growing sector now a days. Health care is defined as the whole procedure which includes prevention of the disease, diagnosis of the disease, and treatment of the disease. Health care is practiced and run on its full pledge by the help of healthcare workers and doctors.
The sectors which came in category of healthcare is medicine, midwifery, optometry, audiology, oncology, occupational therapy, and psychology. Healthcare is the practice or effort to achieve the patient's health both physical, emotional as well as mental.
Therefore,Physician direction of emergency medical systems (ems) emergency care, advanced life support. assign the cpt code is 99288.
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a client who is receiving mechanical ventilation is anxious and is ""fighting"" the ventilator. which action should the nurse take first?
The nurse should firstly try to reduce the anxiety of the patient who is anxious and is ""fighting"" the ventilator and teach about how to breath with the mechanical ventilation on.
Anxiety is the response to stress. The person suffers with extreme tension and fear of something. The general symptoms of anxiety are: nervousness, breathlessness, sweating, trembling, sudden weakness, etc.
Mechanical ventilation is the process of providing artificial breaths to the patient when he./she is unable to breathe on their own. This is usually required when a person has some severe disease or right after the surgery. The ventilation can be accompanied by severe infections.
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a novel 2-week wait lung cancer pathway starting with a telephone consultation, with patient satisfaction survey results.
A novel 2-week wait lung cancer pathway starting with a telephone consultation, with patient satisfaction survey results from the first 111 patients showed high satisfaction of about 93% of the telephonic consultation.
The survey was performed in May 2018 in a collaboration with local general practitioners (GP). GP first examined computed tomography (CT) of the chest or abdomen and blood tests simultaneously. The patients were provided telephonic appointments with respiratory consultants.
After taking the history of the patient and results from CT and blood tests, the patients were examined further. If the patient was found fine after a lung cancer diagnosis, he stood reassured and discharged.
The patients with some comorbidities were then sent for a face-to-face consultation and further examine the fitness level.
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the nurse knows that the patient who is being treated in the emergency room for traumatic injury should also be evaluated for which other comorbidities? (select all that apply.)
Suici/dality, depression, posttraumatic stress disorder, drug, and alcohol use are the other comorbidities.
Traumatic injury continues to be a significant global public health issue and is linked to significant loss of life and health. The American Association for the Surgery of Trauma estimates that traumas cause more than three million nonfatal injuries and more than 150,000 fatalities annually in the United States.
Elderly people frequently experience trauma, which is associated with high mortality. This is partly because of their advanced age, but it is further complicated by other factors including the severity of the injury, previous comorbidities, and poor first general assessments.
There will be an increase in preexisting conditions in trauma victims as the population ages and medical treatment advances.
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a nurse assesses a 22-year-old client who has never had a pap test. which factor should the nurse explain to the client as being a risk for cervical cancer?
The factor which the nurse should explain to the client as being a risk for cervical cancer include the following below:
History of Chlamydia infection.Multiple pregnancies. Diet low in fruits.What is Cervical cancer?This is referred to as the form of cancer which occurs in the cervix of females and is characterized by the presence of tumor in the area.
Individuals who don't take fruits regularly or those who have a history of chlamydia infections are those who are at a greater risk of having cervical cancer which makes option A, B and E as the most appropriate choice.
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The options are:
a) History of Chlamydia infection
b) Multiple pregnancies
c) Diet rich in folate
d) Sexual monogamy
e) Diet low in fruits
the transcendental nursing home is working on decreasing its rates of catheter-associated urinary tract infections (utis) among its patients. the improvement team predicts that if they begin providing intensive training to staff on how to place the catheters, the infection rates will improve. they devise a plan to test this idea.
Option D) Theory of knowledge
The best answer is “theory of knowing.” Deming believed that theories are the cornerstone of knowledge and that ideas must be developed, applied, and assessed in order to methodically advance knowledge.
What is Seming's theory of profound knowledge?Deming’s theory of profound knowledge, a management philosophy, is based on system theory.
It is predicated on the notion that each organization is composed of a system of interconnected individuals and operations that make up the system’s component pieces.
W. Edwards, M.D. Deming had a simple yet ground-breaking understanding of quality.
He asserted that companies that focus on improving quality will ultimately reduce expenses, as opposed to companies that focus on boosting revenue, which would do the opposite.
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The nurse is preparing to administer a medication that the client takes to treat a cardiac dysrhythmia. Which site should the nurse use to assess pulse in this client?.
The site which a well trained nurse should use to assess pulse in a client in a preparation to receive treatment on cardiac dysrhythmia is apical site.
When taking care of patient with this heart disorder, healthcare providers need to give their utmost attention to it so it won't lead to bigger complications as giving treatment through the right site is one of the most important steps in improving the condition
Cardiac dysrhythmiaCardiac dysrhythmia can simply be defined as a serious health problem whereby the heart beat abnormally either too fast or too slow.
The service of healthcare workers are usually needed to improve this health condition of the heart.Generally, heart disorders are serious health conditions which can lead to the risk of death if not properly taken care of
So therefore, the site which a well trained nurse should use to assess pulse in a client in a preparation to receive treatment on cardiac dysrhythmia is apical site.
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32 year old g2p1 woman presents at 42 weeks gestation her prenatal course has been uncomplicated and she had a first
Admit for induction is the next best step in the management of the patient at 42 weeks gestation which has cervix is 4 cm dilated and 100% effaced.
The best course of treatment for a patient with a healthy cervix at a gestational age more than or equal to 41 weeks is delivery. Her effacement and dilatation increase the likelihood that her induction will be effective.
Comparatively to a patient who experiences spontaneous labor, inducing labor in a patient with an unfavorable cervix considerably raises the likelihood of a cesarean section. If the gestational age is known, it is not appropriate to monitor a patient who is >42 weeks with antepartum fetal testing, such as twice weekly non-stress tests with amniotic fluid index.
The management strategy, which should include labor induction at this gestational age, should not be changed by doing an ultrasound to evaluate fetal growth and/or amniotic fluid volume.
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Question correction:
A 32-year-old G2P1 woman is at 42 weeks gestation. Her prenatal course was uncomplicated and she had a first trimester ultrasound confirming dates. Her cervix is 4 cm dilated and 100% effaced. She does not report contractions and states there is good fetal movement. What is the next best step in the management of this patient?
A. Ultrasound to assess amniotic fluid volume
B. Twice weekly non-stress test (NST) and amniotic fluid index (AFI)
C. Daily biophysical profiles
D. Admit for induction
E. Ultrasound to assess fetal growth
the nurse is explaining the recommended dietary allowances (rdas) to a client seeking nutritional counseling. how would the nurse describe rdas?
The nurse is explaining the recommended dietary allowances (RDAs) to a client seeking nutritional counseling.
What are RDAs?The Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) for critical nutrients have been assessed by the Food and Nutrition Board to be sufficient to cover the known nutrient needs of practically all healthy individuals.
History of RDAs.The first Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) were published in 1943, during World War II, with the stated purpose of “establishing criteria to serve as a target for appropriate nutrition.” According to “newer results,” it indicated the “recommended daily intakes for the major nutritional needs for people of different ages” (NRC, 1943).
The history of how the RDAs were developed is explained in-depth by the first chair of the Committee on Recommended Dietary Allowances (Roberts, 1958). Updates have been made to the original article.
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When percussing the anterior chest for tone, a nurse should anticipate what tone over the majority of the lung fields?.
a nurse is orienting a new client to the unit when another client rushes down the hallway and asks the nurse to sit down to talk. the client requesting the nurse’s attention is manipulative and uses acting-out behaviors when demands go unmet. how should the nurse intervene?
The way the nurse would have to intervene for the patient who is said to be acting out would be to: Tell the interrupting client to sit down and be patient, stating, "I'll be back as soon as possible."
What is an acting out behavior?T6his is the term that is used to refer to all of the behaviors that are seen as a way of trying to control other people by acting in ways that would cause a person to be aggressive and also show negative emotion. The goal is to be able to control the actions of others to get them to do the things they want with such attitude. Some examples of this would be: self mutilation, cursing and fighting other people.
When people engage in such we can say that they are trying to be manipulative in order to have their way. This is what we can see the client doing from the scenario here.
Hence the best thing for this nurse to do would be for her to Tell the interrupting client to sit down and be patient, stating, "I'll be back as soon as possible."
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medicare part d pays for inpatient hospital critical care access, skilled nursing facility stays, hospice care, and some home health care?
The correct answer for this question is Medicare hospital insurance (Medicare part A).
Inpatient hospital treatment, skilled nursing facilities, hospice, lab tests, surgery, and home health care are all covered under Medicare Part A hospital insurance.
hospital inpatient treatment. care in a skilled nursing facility. Care provided at a nursing home, also known as skilled nursing, but not long-term or custodial care. palliative care
Unless medically required, a private room in a hospital or skilled care facility. Personalized nursing care. Personal things like razors or slipper socks, as well as a telephone or television in your room, unless the hospital or skilled care institution provides these for free to all residents.
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anderson jj, hansen m, rowe gp, swayzee z. complication rates in diabetics with first metatarsophalangeal joint arthrodesis. diabet foot ankle
Overall, the first MTPJ arthrodesis is a successful and advantageous treatment for individuals with diabetes mellitus. Patients with peripheral neuropathy who have diabetes are more likely to experience minor and moderate problems.
When necessary, first metatarsophalangeal joint (MTPJ) arthrodesis has proven to be a successful surgical treatment, although it is not without risk. When compared to non-diabetic individuals, people with diabetes mellitus have a higher risk of surgical complications, which are most frequently linked to soft tissue and bone healing.
This study's goal was to assess the first MTPJ arthrodesis complication rates in diabetic individuals and compare them to the standard complication rates for the treatment. From June 2002 to August 2012, a retrospective chart analysis of 76 diabetes individuals was conducted. The research had 42 male and 44 female participants. Age, gender, bone graft integration, hemoglobin A1c, cigarette usage, body mass index, peripheral neuropathy, hallux extensions, hallux interphalangeal arthritis, and rheumatoid arthritis were just a few of the numerous factors the investigators looked at and compared to the problems results. At least 24 months were spent monitoring the patient.
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a patient's blood transfusion has been hanging for 2 hours. the patient is complaining of a raised itchy rash and shortness of breath; she is wheezing, anxious, and very
Findings are congruent with Allergic transfusion reaction for a client who is complaining of a raised, itchy rash and shortness of breath, and is wheezing, anxious, and very restless.
Fever, chills, urticaria (hives), and itching are among the most typical warning signs and symptoms of Allergic transfusion reaction. Certain symptoms go away with little to no therapy. However, signs of a more serious response include respiratory difficulty, a high temperature, hypotension (low blood pressure), and crimson urine (hemoglobinuria).
(A) The signs and symptoms of a hemolytic transfusion response include fever, chills, chest discomfort, hypotension, and tachypnea. (B) A febrile transfusion response is characterized by a fever, chills, and headache. (C) Pulmonary crackles, dyspnea, and cough are signs of circulatory overload. Wheezing, anxiety, urticaria, and pruritus are signs of an allergic transfusion response (D).
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Question correction:
A client's transfusion of packed red blood cells has been infusing for 2 hours. She is complaining of a raised, itchy rash and shortness of breath. She is wheezing, anxious, and very restless. The nurse knows these assessment findings are congruent with:
A. Hemolytic transfusion reaction
B. Febrile transfusion reaction
C. Circulatory overload
D. Allergic transfusion reaction
accomplishments that prepare a graduate student for an advanced nursing role (minimum of three items):
The major accomplishment to prepare the graduate student is obtaining a certification in the specified choice, and obtaining the Master’s Degree in Nursing Profession. Moreover, another accomplishment is working with teams and collaborating with different professionals. Leadership and problem-solving abilities should also be key competencies that are to be accomplished in the masters training program. These abilities help to ensure the performance and practice are of vital perfect.
A critical leadership skill in nursing is the ability to evolve and adapt to the constant changes in the health care industry. Nurse leaders must face the uncertainty of both their day-to-day and the rapidly changing landscape of medicine. Plus, leaders must effectively communicate these changes to their subordinates.
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What are the top three factors that contribute to a new graduate’s ability to learn to work with the patient’s electronic medical records?.
The three factors that contribute to a new graduate’s ability to learn to work with the patient’s electronic medical records are:
Communication SkillsProject Management ExperienceTechnical ProficiencyWhat are the skills about?The new graduate’s ability to have a good communication skills is vital because it make sure that your EHR implementation is well-handle as well as been organized.
Project Management Experience is one which a person uses in their EHR implementation team to know the technical as well as clinical areas of EHR implementation.
Therefore, The three factors that contribute to a new graduate’s ability to learn to work with the patient’s electronic medical records are:
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the nurse is caring for a 6-year-old child who has multisystem trauma due to a motor vehicle accident. the child is receiving total parenteral nutrition (tpn). what is a recommended nursing intervention for children on tpn?
Option A: The nurse is caring for a 6-year-old child who has multisystem trauma due to a motor vehicle accident. The child is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN).
The recommended nursing intervention is to check blood glucose levels frequently, such as every 4 to 6 hours, to evaluate for hyperglycemia.
What should the nurse initially do?The nurse should initially check blood glucose levels often, such as every 4 to 6 hours, in order to screen for hyperglycemia.
Throughout TPN (Total Parenteral Nutrition) therapy, the nurse should keep a close eye on the infusion rate and immediately alert the doctor or nurse practitioner to any changes.
Rate modifications are allowed, but they must be prescribed by a physician or nurse practitioner. If the TPN infusion is stopped or halted for any reason, the nurse should begin an infusion of a 10% dextrose solution at the same infusion rate.
TPN can be administered continuously for the full 24 hours or cyclically after it has been started, such as throughout a 12-hour period at night.
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while obtaining the client's health history, which factor would the nurse identify that predisposes the client to type 2 diabetes
The factor that the nurse needs to identify which is capable of predisposing the client to type 2 diabetes is being 20 lbs or more overweight.
What is type 2 diabetes?Type 2 diabetes is a disease in which the individual is unable to control glucose levels, which is associated with both genetic factors and environmental factors (e.g., overweight).
In conclusion, the factor that the nurse needs to identify which is capable of predisposing the client to type 2 diabetes is being 20 lbs or more overweight.
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Submit your essay on the causes and treatment of skin cancer.Have 3 references two from a article and the last one doesn’t matter where
Answer:
bbbbbbbbbbbbb
Explanation:
Answer:
I know I'm late but I just finished this and wanted to leave this here for anyone who might need it <3
the client has been prescribed nicotinic acid for treatment of hyperlipidemia. the nurse should teach about which common side effects with this medication?
If the client has been prescribed a nicotinic acid treatment for hyperlipidemia, the nurse should teach the client about the Flushing of skin which is a side effect of using this medication.
What is Hyperlipidemia?Hyperlipidemia is a condition in which there are high levels of fat deposits (mostly lipids) in the blood. It is also known as dyslipidemia or high cholesterol.
These lipids include cholesterol and triglycerides. These substances get deposited in the blood passage like the blood vessel walls and then restrict the blood flow creating grave risks to the life of the person.
What are the symptoms of Hyperlipidemia?Hyperlipidemia does not have any recognizable symptoms. This condition can only be found through blood tests.
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the nurse is reviewing the results of serum laboratory studies drawn on a client diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (aids) who is receiving didanosine. the nurse determines that the client may have the medication discontinued by the primary health care provider (phcp) if which significantly elevated result is noted?
If the serum amylase levels are elevated, the primary healthcare provider may have the medicine discontinued.
What is didanosine?
Didanosine is a drug that is used to treat human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection in combination with other drugs. Didanosine belongs to the category of drugs known as nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs). It functions by lowering the level of HIV in the blood. Didanosine does not treat HIV, but it may lessen your risk of getting AIDS and other HIV-related diseases such as severe infections or cancer.
Didanosine may result in severe or perhaps fatal pancreatitis (swelling of the pancreas). If you consume or have ever consumed excessive amounts of alcohol, as well as if you currently have or have ever had pancreatitis, pancreatic, or kidney problems, let your doctor know right away. If you have any of the following symptoms, such as stomach discomfort or swelling, nausea, vomiting, or fever.
Therefore, if the serum amylase levels are elevated, the medicine will be discontinued.
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one of the primary purposes of a sedation vacation is to: group of answer choices assess the hemodynamic status of the patient. assess for readiness to wean from the mechanical ventilator. assess the patient's ability to tolerate tube feedings. assess for readiness to turn or reposition the patient.
One of the primary purposes of a sedation vacation is to (2) assess for readiness to wean from the mechanical ventilator.
Sedation vacation is limiting or stopping the patient from the administration of sedatives. This is a very crucial task that is performed only after examining the patient's vitals thoroughly. This is usually performed to stop of patient's dependence on drugs and have a recovery on their own without drug overuse.
Mechanical ventilator is an equipment applied to the patient's who cannot breathe on their own either due to some disease or after surgery. Sedation vacation is an important step when weaning a patient from the use of mechanical ventilators. Thus should be done on time to prevent any injuries caused by mechanical ventilation.
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