The frequency of neurocognitive diseases in adult patients will cause wearable technology to change mental health in the future. The use of wearable technology in monitoring, assessment, rehabilitation, and diagnosis has recently advanced. This systematic review presents the most recent wearable technologies for patients with Parkinson's disease (PD) or other neurocognitive disorders.
What is Parkinson’s disease?A central nervous system condition that makes it difficult to move and frequently includes tremors.
Parkinson's symptoms are brought on by a decline in dopamine levels as a result of brain nerve cell death.Hand tremors are typically the first sign of Parkinson's disease. Additional symptoms include sluggishness, stiffness, and loss of balance.With the help of medicine, symptoms of Parkinson's disease can be controlled.Parkinson's disease symptoms are mostly caused by low dopamine levels in the brain. Some symptoms have an impact on movement, however, many people also have non-motor symptoms. According to a 2015 research article, the brain alterations that lead to Parkinson's disease start to occur about 6 years before symptoms manifest.
What is neurocognitive disorder?A neurocognitive disorder is a medical ailment other than a mental illness that impairs mental function. It's frequently mistakenly used to describe dementia. Each of the primary brain areas carries out one or more specific activities.
The three main subtypes of neurocognitive disorders are delirium, substantial neurocognitive disorders, and moderate neurocognitive disorders.
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the nurse is assessing a newborn's vital signs and notes the following: hr 138, rr 42, temperature 98.7of (37.1oc), and blood pressure 70/40 mm hg. which action should the nurse prioritize?
The correct option is the last option. The nurse is assessing a newborn's vital signs and notes the following: HR 138, RR 42, temperature 98.7oF (37.1oC), and blood pressure 70/40 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse prioritize? The nurse should prioritize Document normal findings
What are vital signs?The term vital signs in the field of medicine refers to the measurement of the basic functions of the body. The basic function of the body is usually four in number, these are: body temperature, blood pressure, breathing rate, and pulse rate.
The body temperature refers to the degree of hotness or coldness of the human body. The measurement is done using a thermometer. The blood pressure refers to the pressure at which the blood flows in the circulatory system. This is measured with the blood pressure meter. The pulse rate is also measured with same meter as the blood pressure meter.
The vital signs measured by the nurse are within the normal limits so the nurse should go on and document the findings. Hence the final option is the correct option.
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complete question
The nurse is assessing a newborn's vital signs and notes the following: HR 138, RR 42, temperature 98.7oF (37.1oC), and blood pressure 70/40 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse prioritize?
Report tachypnea.
Recheck blood pressure in 15 minutes.
Put warming blanket over infant.
Document normal findings.
when discussing the many changes the woman's body undergoes during pregnancy, the nurse may include that the woman's total blood volume will increase by approximately how much by the 32nd week of gestation
The woman's total blood volume will increase by approximately 60% - 80% by the 32nd week of gestation.
Pregnancy is an active process that involves various significant physiological changes in the woman's body. Contractility, cardiac output and pulse rate, hemodynamic changes, and changes in blood pressure are all associated with pregnancy. A significant and vibrant change includes the change in maternal blood volume.
The blood volume of a pregnant woman particularly increases after a few weeks of her pregnancy and continues increasing progressively throughout the pregnancy. This significant increase in blood volume is marked by 20% - 45% by the sixth to eighth week of pregnancy, reaching 60% - 80% by the 32nd week and almost 95% by the arrival of the delivery period.
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a client who is taking an oral hypoglycemic daily for type 2 diabetes develops an infection with anorexia
A client who is taking an oral hypoglycemic daily for type 2 diabetes develops an infection with anorexia. Take the oral medication, drink fluids, and monitor capillary glucose levels.
What is anorexia ?A fixation with food and weight caused by an eating disorder. Anorexia is characterized by distorted body image and an unrealistic fear of being overweight.
Examples of symptoms include starving oneself or engaging in strenuous exercise in an effort to maintain a weight below average.
To get back to normal weight, you might need medical treatment. Talk therapy can help with behavior improvement and self-esteem. a great dislike of putting on weight.
Common signs and symptoms of anorexia :To Manage Weight, Purge
A preoccupation with food, diets, and calories.
Changes in emotion and mood.
Body deformation
Excessive exercise
Denying hunger and refusing to eat.
The eating of ritual food.
Alcohol or drug abuse
Emotional and mental signs of anorexia :Not being able to recognize the size and shape of your body (having a distorted self-image). a severe obsession with diets, calories, and food. even though you are underweight, you feel "fat" or overweight.
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fetal complications associated with drug- or alcohol-addicted mothers include all of the following, except:
Fetal complications associated with drug- or alcohol-addicted mothers include all of the following, except: profound tachycardia.
Placenta previa, abruptio placentae, premature membrane rupture, spontaneous abortion, intrauterine growth restriction, preterm labor, birth abnormalities, and neonatal and long-term developmental impacts are among the obstetric and fetal issues linked to maternal substance addiction.Over the past few decades, pregnant women have consumed significantly more alcohol and illegal drugs than before. The best conditions for fetal growth depend on the mother's nutritional state, but if alcohol or other drugs of abuse interfere with food intake, their potential teratogenic consequences increase.Drinking alcohol and using drugs can prevent nutrients from being absorbed, lowering the quality and amount of the proper nutrient and energy intake and leading to malnutrition, especially of the micronutrients (vitamins, omega–3, folic acid, zinc, choline, iron, copper)Therefore, profound tachycardia is not found in the fetus of substance-abused mothers.
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a nurse is caring for a client who has just been diagnosed with lung cancer. what is a cardinal sign of lung cancer?
According to the research, the correct option is chronic cough. It is a cardinal sign of lung cancer.
What is lung cancer?It is a type of cancer that arises from the exaggerated proliferation of certain lung cells, causing local problems due to occupation of space and compression of nearby structures.
The symptoms, caused by the local growth of the tumor and invasion of neighboring pulmonary structures, include chronic persistent cough, associated or not with expectoration.
Therefore, we can conclude that according to the research, the correct option is chronic cough. It is a cardinal sign of lung cancer.
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according to benner’s novice to expert model, a nurse who interprets nuances and perceives deviations from normal is at which level of clinical nursing practice?
According to Benner’s novice to expert model, a nurse who interprets nuances and perceives deviations from normal is at the proficient level of clinical nursing practice.
Who is a Nurse?This is referred to a healthcare professional who specializes in taking care of sick patients and ensuring that adequate recovery is achieved.
The level of clinical nursing practice deals with a nurse being able top modify different things when responding to an event due to the experiences which have been gathered over years of exposure and practice.
The nurse is also able to interpret nuances and perceive deviations from normal and is common with more experienced professionals.
This is therefore the reason why proficient level of clinical nursing practice was chosen as the most appropriate choice.
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two patients in the waiting room with the same exact name are waiting for phlebotomy testing. the phlebotomist should confirm patient id by
Option (c): Two patients in the waiting room with the same exact name are waiting for phlebotomy testing. The phlebotomist should confirm patient id by asking both patients to state their DOB.
What is Proper patient identification?Proper patient identification, which is also the most important aspect of specimen collection, is one of the Joint Commission’s most important yearly National Patient Safety Goals.
To identify patients, at least two IDs must be utilized. The following IDs are valid for both inpatients and outpatients: full name, date of birth, and medical record number (MRN).
They are recognized as distinct identifiers because no two patients may have the same MRN or SSN.
Whenever possible, confirm the patient’s distinctive identification (s). In an outpatient situation, ask the patient to verbally state and spell their entire name, including first, last, middle, and suffix.
After that, contrast the name with the request. It will be simpler to identify between people with the same exact name and avoid specimen mistake if you have the patient’s DOB.
Collecting as many identifiers as you can is crucial to reducing patient misidentification and specimen mislabeling. Because both patients have the exact same name, asking them to reveal it is insufficient to prevent mistake between different specimens.
Since HIPAA safeguards them, phlebotomists are not permitted to access medical records unless it is absolutely necessary to provide high-quality care.
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a surgeon performed a cataract extraction with an intraocular lens implant on the right eye of a medicare patient. what modifier(s) would be reported?
A surgeon performed a cataract extraction with an intraocular lens implant on the right eye of a medicare patient right modifier(s) would be reported.
Briefing :
Procedures performed on paired organs, such as the eyes, ears, breasts (except the skin), or sides of the body, are denoted by the modifiers RT and LT.
What is cataract extraction ?Surgery to remove the clouded lens from the eye is called a cataract extraction (ex-TRACK-shun). On the eye's surface, close to the cornea, the clear portion of the eye, the surgeon creates a small incision (cut). The material from the clouded lens is removed from the eye using a little device that is put via the incision.
Cataract surgery is a simple procedure that typically lasts between 30 and 45 minutes. You should be able to return home the same day because it is frequently performed as a day surgery under local anesthesia.
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after administering a loop diuretic, a nurse monitors the client for increased urine output. what principle explains the secondary water loss (diuresis) of a loop diuretic?
The correct answer for this question is Osmosis.
Osmotic diuresis is an increase in urine production brought on by the presence of specific chemicals in the tiny kidney tubes. When chemicals like glucose enter the kidney tubules and cannot be reabsorbed, excretion takes place (due to a pathological state or the normal nature of the substance). The compounds raise the osmotic pressure inside the tubule, which causes water to be retained in the lumen and inhibits water absorption, boosting urine production (i.e., diuresis). Therapeutics like mannitol, which is used to improve urine output and decrease extracellular fluid volume, have the similar effect.
By making the blood more osmolar, substances in the circulation can also increase the volume of fluid flowing through the body.
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what will the nurse instruct nursing assistive personnel (nap) to do when measuring a patient’s rectal temperature using an electronic thermometer?
The nurse will instruct nursing assistive personnel (nap) to use the probe with the red tip when measuring a patient’s rectal temperature using an electronic thermometer.
What is a Thermometer?
This is referred to as a device which is used to measure the temperature of a substance or body and is dependent on the thermal capacity.
Rectal temperature is gotten by inserting the thermometer into the rectum of an individual in other to measure the internal temperature of the body. The probe with the red tip is used in this type of scenario and is therefore the most appropriate choice.
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which of the following is true regarding anterior putuitary glands?
A.it releases hormones made by neuron in the hypothalamus
B.it does not have cell that can produce hormones
C.it is often referred as the "máster gland" of the endocrine system
D.is is not truly part of the endocrine system because it is regulated by the hypothalamus
Answer:
With respect to the anterior pituitary gland, it is true that it is often referred as the "master gland" of the endocrine system (option C).
Explanation:
The pituitary gland —also called hypophysis— divided into two parts, an anterior part called the adenohypophysis and a posterior part called the neurohypophysis.
The adenohypophysis or anterior pituitary gland is in charge of the secretion of hormones that serve to regulate the hormonal secretion of other glands, such as the thyroid, the suprarenal glands and the gonads. This is the reason why it is considered and often referred as the "master gland" of the endocrine system.
The neurohypophysis depends on the control of the hypothalamus and the neurotransmitters that this structure sends to the pituitary, releasing hormones whose effect is direct on the target organ.
The other options are not correct because:
A. Anterior pituitary does not release hormones made by the neurons in the hypothalamus.
B. Adenohypophysis has hormone-producing cells.
D. The anterior pituitary is not regulated by the hypothalamus and is considered part of the endocrine system.
a primiparous client, 20 hours after giving birth, asks the nurse about starting postpartum exercises. what instructions would be most appropriate to include in the plan of care?
a primiparous client, 20 hours after giving birth, asks the nurse about starting postpartum exercises. Flex the knees while supine, inhale deeply and exhale while contracting the abdominal muscles instructions would be most appropriate to include in the plan of care.
What are postpartum ?Postpartum is defined as the period of childbirth, most mothers experience the baby blues or they feel sad or emptiness and these newborn blues disappear in 3 to 5 days for most mothers.
person may suffer from postpartum depression if your baby blues are persist or if person feel depressed, hopeless, or empty for more than two weeks.
Women who feed well may get their first postpartum period after six weeks after giving birth, a year or more later, or even 18 months later.
There are certain rules should be taken like washing before milk feeding.
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the nurse is caring for a client who has been admitted with partial- and full-thickness burns over 25% of the total body surface area. lactated ringer solution and 5% dextrose have been prescribed. what is the purpose of these fluids?
The correct answer for this question is
Maintain blood volume
Lactated Ringer solution and 5% dextrose in saline are not plasma expanders, as is albumin.
In water, sodium chloride, sodium lactate, potassium chloride, and calcium chloride are combined to form Ringer's lactate solution (RL), also known as sodium lactate solution, Lactated Ringer's, and Hartmann's solution. People with low blood volume or low blood pressure use it to replace fluids and electrolytes. It can also be used to wash the eye after a chemical burn and to treat metabolic acidosis. It is infused intravenously or administered topically to the afflicted area.
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a patient with a right side, benign adrenal adenoma has a laparoscopic adrenalectomy. what cpt® and icd-10-cm codes are reported?
A patient with a right side, benign adrenal adenoma has a laparoscopic adrenalectomy. 63020, M50.21 are the cpt® and icd-10-cm codes are reported.
What is adenoma ?An adenoma is a benign tumor, start with the epithelial tissue that covers the organs and glands. It grow slowly and look like small mushroom shaped structure with a stalk.
It grows along your glandular organs that produce and release chemicals called hormones and these hormones regulate many of the body’s functions.
Adenomas can also observed in different parts of the body like Adrenal adenomas in adrenal glands, Some colon polyps which grows along the lining of the colon, Parathyroid adenomas, Pituitary adenomas, Pleomorphic.
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a client develops weakness in both lower extremities following a prolonged period of bed rest. this condition is most likely caused by group of answer choices atrophy dysplasia hypertrophy hyperplasia
It occurs due to atrophy.
Malnutrition, advanced age, heredity, a lack of exercise, and specific medical problems can all contribute to muscle atrophy. When you don't use your muscles enough, you develop disuse (physiologic) atrophy.a phrase that refers to the existence of aberrant cells within a tissue or organ. Although dysplasia is not cancer, it can occasionally develop into malignancy. Depending on how aberrant the cells seem, dysplasia can range from mild to severe.By definition, hypertrophy is the enlargement of an organ or tissue caused by an increase in the size of its cells. Hypertrophy is the process of expanding the size of the cells that are already there, not to be confused with hyperplasia, the process of increasing the number of cells.Therefore, option A is correct.
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an unconscious adolescent with type 1 diabetes is brought to the emergency department. the blood glucose level is 741 mg/dl. which finding would the nurse expect during the initial assessment
The nurse would expect the finding of hyperpnea in an unconscious adolescent with type 1 diabetes brought to the emergency department who has the blood glucose level of 741 mg/dl.
Hyperpnea is the condition of increased volume of the lungs due to abnormally deep breathing. It can be normally experienced in daily life when the body demands for excess oxygen, such as during workouts. However the condition can also arise due to some disease.
Type I diabetes occurs when the pancreas stops the synthesis of insulin. The cause of the disease can be genetic or environmental. Currently there is no permanent sure for diabetes, however the disease can be kept under control with a healthy lifestyle, proper workout and healthy meals.
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List three characteristics that adenoviruses, t7 virus, and papillomaviruses have in common.
Answer:
1] all the three presence of common icosohedral structures,
2] they all have double-stranded DNA,
3] they all are similar in their relative sizes.
a client is prescribed alprazolam. which action must the nurse include in the client assessment during the initiation of therapy? quizlet
Assess the client's feelings about alprazolam further is the action must the nurse include in the client assessment during the initiation of therapy for a client that is prescribed with alprazolam.
Treatment for anxiety and panic disorders involves alprazolam. It is a member of the benzodiazepine drug class, which has calming effects on the central nervous system and the brain. It functions by boosting the body's natural chemical's effects (GABA).
When used with other drugs, alprazolam can raise the risk of significant or fatal respiratory issues, drowsiness, or coma. Alprazolam is available as a tablet, an extended-release tablet, an oral disintegrating tablet (a tablet that dissolves fast in the mouth), and an oral liquid concentration.
Typically, two to four times a day is the recommended dosage for the tablet, orally disintegrating tablet, and concentrated solution. One daily dose of the extended-release pill is taken, often in the morning.
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All the following functions are associated with the spleen except
All of the following are spleen functions, with the exception of creating crypts that capture germs.
Overview of the Spleen:
The spleen is the body's largest lymphoid organ.
Per minute, it filters 10%–15% of the body's blood.
regulates the body's blood cell count.
It removes blood cells that are damaged or ageing.
illnesses that can affect the spleen
auxiliary spleen 10% of people have an extra spleen, although it has no negative effects on health.
Spleen rupture: Internal bleeding causes the spleen's protective capsule to thin.
Splenomegaly: Liver enlargement brought on by bacterial infections, disorders of the liver, etc.
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Social media has no impact on health and wellness. *
O True
False
Answer:
False.
Explanation:
Social media can have a huge impact on mental health.
the nurse is caring for a client with a severe head injury. an osmotic diuretic is ordered. the nurse understands which drug is an osmotic diuretic?
In this case, the nurse should understand that Mannitol might be an osmotic diuretic drug provided to the patient/client.
What is a osmotic diuretic drug?An osmotic diuretic drug is any type of medication that promotes urination by filtering at the glomerulus in the kidneys but they have poor reabsorption.
In conclusion, in this case, the nurse should understand that Mannitol might be an osmotic diuretic drug provided to the patient/client.
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how many cm are in 10 in
when preparing to clean a patient’s dentures using the sink, the nurse first protects the dentures by doing what?
Padding the sink basin with a washcloth is how the nurse should protect the dentures when preparing to clean a patient’s dentures using the sink.
What is Denture?This refers to substances which can be moved from one place to another and are used to replace missing parts of the body such as the teeth, arm etc.
The dentures should be cleaned from time to time so as to prevent contamination with different types of pathogens such as bacteria etc.
This should be done using the sink in which it must be padded with a washcloth so as to ensure that it is not washed down the drainage system so as to save resources such as money needed to get it.
This helps to prevent the loss of the item and is therefore the reason why it is the first action which has to be done before washing occurs and is the most appropriate choice in this type of scenario.
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to obtain a scan using this technique, a patient is injected with (or ingests) a low and harmless dose of a short-lived radioactive glucose.
To obtain a scan using the positron emission tomography technique, a patient is injected with (or ingests) a low and harmless dose of a short-lived radioactive glucose.
What is Positron emission tomography?
This refers to a type of imaging technique which employs the use of radioactive substances in other to measure the metabolic activity of the cells of body tissues.
A scan using this technique is obtained by injecting the patient with a low and harmless dose of a short-lived radioactive glucose so that a picture of where the glucose being used in the body is visible and helps to detect cancerous cells etc.
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thompson s.w., rogerson d., ruddock a. et al. the effectiveness of two methods of prescribing load on maximal strength development: a systematic review. sports medicine 2019.
To gain maximum strength, the right amount of resistance training load (kg) must be prescribed.
What is resistance training?
When you engage in resistance training, you compel your muscles to operate against a weight or force. Utilizing free weights, weight machines, resistance bands, and your own body weight are some examples of resistance training.
To reap the greatest benefits, a novice should exercise two or three times each week. Before beginning a new fitness program, complete the adult pre-exercise screening tool and get the advice of specialists like your doctor, exercise physiologist, physiotherapist, or AUSactive registered professional.
In order to maximize increases in strength and size, rest each muscle group for at least 48 hours. By mixing up your routines, you can break through a fitness plateau.
Therefore, the right amount of resistance training load needs to be prescribed for maximum load.
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16 rights of medications
nurses on a specialty surgical unit were interested in how they could improve the pain management of patients undergoing orthopedic surgery while minimizing narcotic utilization picot
P-Patients having orthopaedic surgery are designated as .
I - Using IV Tylenol and reducing the need for narcotics
C - Managing pain by using less opioids and giving IV Tylenol instead
O - Pain treatment for orthopaedic surgery patients
T - No time limit
What do you mean orthopedic?A field of medicine that focuses on treating or preventing malformations, illnesses, and injuries to the skeleton and related structures (such as tendons and ligaments)
What exactly is an orthopedic issue?Orthopedic concerns include any abnormalities involving the musculoskeletal structure of your body. The majority of orthopedic diseases are uncomfortable, and if they are not appropriately treated, they might result in other health issues.
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the nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxygen therapy for pneumonia. the nurse should best assess whether the client is hypoxemic by monitoring the client’s:
The nurse should best assess whether the client is hypoxemic by monitoring the client’s oxygen saturation level.
What is the oxygen saturation level?The oxygen saturation level is a measurement that indicates the oxygen concentration in the blood and/or bloodstream of a patient, which is fundamental to carrying out metabolic functions.
In conclusion, the nurse should best assess whether the client is hypoxemic by monitoring the client’s oxygen saturation level.
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time may be assigned to an advanced-function assistant to perform legally allowable clinical tasks without the dentist needing to be assigned to the patient.
The statement "time may be assigned to an advanced-function assistant to perform legally allowable clinical tasks without the dentist needing to be assigned to the patient" is true.
A dental hygienist may only provide dental services that are educational, therapeutic, prophylactic, and preventive in nature as may be authorized by the Board. They may also carry out all tasks carried out by a dental assistant with the specific kind of supervision outlined in 234 of this code: CMR 5.11.
A dental hygienist or public health dental hygienist is not permitted to carry out any treatments that call for diagnosis and treatment planning for non-dental hygiene services, surgery or cutting on either hard or soft tissue, or the prescribing of drugs.
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While taking a patient’s medical history, Susan asks about his social history. She asks whether he drinks alcohol. The patient immediately becomes defensive and accuses Susan of getting too personal about his affairs.
a. How might Susan explain her reasons for asking these questions? What options are available if the patient refuses to discuss his social history with Susan?
b. Could this opposition to questions about the social history raise suspicion in Susan’s mind? What might she suspect?
Answer:
okok so
Explanation:
a: explain that its simply for the records and not to judge or conifine him in anyway.
b: yes, she may suspect him to be a acoholic of somekind
It should be noted that Susan can explain to the patient that his social history is relevant to the case as it can be used to aid the treatment.
The opposition to questions about the social history can not raise suspicion in Susan’s mind. By not providing his social history, the patient will not raise suspicion in the mind of Susan as some people as just defensive in their privacy.
It is Susan's responsibility because the doctor has very little amount of time. To answer the patient’s question, it is vital to tell the patient the reason behind the formality and why the doctor cannot do it.
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