The clinical symptoms would the nurse expect to assess are:
Rising heart rate
Reduced digestion
Pallor, heightened awareness.
What is fight-or-flight response?
The physiological response known as the "fight-or-flight" or "fight-flight-or-freeze" response happens in response to an incident that is deemed to be harmful, an attack, or a threat to one's survival.
The sympathetic nervous system readies the body for a fight-or-flight reaction when an event occurs that the mind regards as harmful. Clinical manifestations of the sympathetic nervous system include elevated heart rate, slowed digestion, acute awareness, and pallor. When danger has passed, the parasympathetic nervous system restores homeostasis by causing pupil constriction and relaxed muscle tone.
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the nurse is assigned to care for a newly admitted client. the nurse performs a physical | assessment and reviews the admission form and the primary health care provider’s prescriptions. which would the nurse identify as the priorities in this client's plan of care? |
3) Hygiene and comfort
Given that the patient's condition is terminal, basic care and comfort should be the nursing priority. When caring for a patient who is dying, comfort-giving takes precedence over other parts of nursing care, such as input and output, nutrition and diet body mechanics, and posture.
Nutrition- The process of consuming food and transforming it into energy and other essential elements is known as nutrition. The compounds known as nutrients are what the body needs to produce the biomolecules and energy needed to carry out its many activities. Nutrients are essential for the growth and effective operation of all living things.
The given question is incomplete, find below the complete question,
Q. A nurse is assigned to care for a newly admitted client. The nurse performs a physical assessment and reviews the admission form and the health care provider's prescriptions. What should the nurse identify as the priorities in this client's plan of care?
1) Intake and output
2) Diet and nutrition
3) Hygiene and comfort
4) Body mechanics and posture
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A balanced diet includes fewer ________ foods and more ________ foods. group of answer choices
Answer:
energy-dense-nutrient-dense
Explanation:
I come from a family of dietians
a nurse is meeting with a group of pregnant clients who are in their last trimester to teach them the signs that may indicate they are going into labor. the nurse determines the session is successful after the clients correctly choose which signs as an indication of starting labor? select all that apply.
These are the signs of starting labor:
bloody showlighteningbackacheThe latent period is when labor first begins. Your cervix starts to thin down and soften at this point, allowing room for the birth of your child. This may take several hours or even days.
Most likely, it will be suggested that you spend this time at home. When you visit a hospital or maternity facility, they could advise you to return home. There are a number of indicators indicating labor may be beginning, including:
tightenings or contractionsa (bloody) "show," when the mucus plug from your cervix (the opening to your uterus or womb) comes away.backachelighteninga need to use the restroom brought on by your baby's head resting against your bowelwhen your waters breakHere is another question with an answer similar to this about starting labor: https://brainly.com/question/28269059
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the parents of a neonate born at 32 weeks' gestation ask about the purpose of the surfactant being given to the baby. what is the best response by the nurse?
"Surfactant improves the ability of your baby's lungs to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide." is the best response by the nurse.
As an addition to oxygen and ventilation treatment, surfactant can be given. Until the newborn can produce enough surfactant on their own, respiratory compliance is increased by the introduction of an artificial surfactant. The infant's demands for sedation are unaffected by surfactant. Improved respiratory compliance, including the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide, is achieved with the use of surfactant.
Surfactant treatment aims to increase the synthesis of surfactant in the type 2 cells of the alveoli in infants with RDS. Neonatal pneumonia and RDS may have a similar clinical appearance. To treat the illness, the newborn could be given a course of broad-spectrum antibiotics.
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In an icu, you order new devices to measure heart rhythm and rate, respiratory rate, oxygen levels, and intracranial pressure. these devices involve:______.
In an ICU the devices to measure heart rhythm and rate, respiratory rate, oxygen levels, and intracranial pressure involve: Biomedical Technology.
ICU is the abbreviated form of Intensive Care Unit. It is a specialized room of a hospital with all the necessary and life-saving equipment and medial devices. Any critically ill or injured patient is treated in the ICU.
Biomedical technology is the result of multidisciplinary field of technology, engineering and biology. All these fields of science are combined for the development of various tools, techniques and devices related to the treatment or analysis of medical issues. The examples are: genome sequencing, BP monitor, imaging systems, etc.
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a nurse is caring for a child with diagnosed cellulitis on the left lower leg. the nurse notes erythema spreading toward the knee and warmth over the area. the child complains of pain. which priority action should the nurse take
the nurse is creating a plan of care for the older adult who has multiple medications and a difficult time reading medication labels due to poor eyesight. what is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis to include in this client's plan of care?
the nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing hypotension. the nurse is concerned about the significant drop in the client's blood pressure and decides to contact the client's health care provider. when preparing a report for the health care provider using the sbar format, what will the nurse include? select all that apply.
"Can you tell me what foods you prefer to eat and what your family is
bringing you?" will the nurse include the nurse
What nursing care behavior by the nurse engenders a client's trust in the nurse?A nurse answers the client's questions about an upcoming test in a calm gentle voice while making eye contact with the client.
The SBAR (Situation-Background-Assessment-Recommendation) technique offers a framework for discussion of a patient's condition among members of the healthcare team.
SBAR is a simple, concrete framework that can be used to frame any conversation, especially those that are urgent, and call for a clinician's immediate attention and action.
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a pregnant client has come to the labor and birth suite in labor. the nurse reviews the client's medical record and determines that a vaginal birth is favorable based on which finding related to the client's pelvic shape?
The nurse reviews the client's medical record and determines that a vaginal birth is favorable because the client has gynecoid pelvis.
What is Gynecoid pelvis ?
Gynecoid pelvis: Due to its shape and bone structure, the gynecoid pelvis is typically associated with women. Gynecoid is a slang term for female or like a woman.
The gynecoid pelvis is less high, broader, and more delicate than the male pelvis. The female pubic arch has a broad, rounded angle. The iliac bone is flatter in females and the sacrum is wider in females than in males. The female pelvic cavity is larger and less funnel-shaped.
Purely anatomically speaking, the female pelvis is better equipped to support the fetus during pregnancy and enable delivery.
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the school nurse noticed a preschool-aged girl scratching her head all the time. when asked, the little girl said i have ticking feeling in my scalp. the school nurse should investigate further for .
The school nurse should investigate further for pediculosis capitis in a girl who is always scratching her head.
Pediculosis capitis is a condition in which small insects infest the human scalp. They are generally called lice and are scientifically known as Pediculus humanus capitis. These are more found in people sharing hair brushes, scarves, and hats with others. Also, this is more common in younger females than males.
The life cycle of a female louse is about 1 month. It lays 7-10 eggs per day and these eggs are set against the head scalp of the host. These eggs release nymphs after 8 days of hatching and then the nymph requires another 8 days to become mature. They grasp the host's hair and feed on their head, sucking blood.
Antiparasitics are generally prescribed. Medicated shampoos and creams are recommended to rinse these lice off the scalp.
This is done to get rid of scratching the head over and over again.
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kabbinavar f, hurwitz hi, fehrenbacher l, et al. phase ii, randomized trial comparing bevacizumab plus fluorouracil (fu)/leucovorin (lv) with fu/lv alone in patients with metastatic colorectal cancer
Trial results suggest first-line therapy chemotherapy and bevacizumab for treating metastatic colorectal cancer.
One hundred four patients suffering from metastatic colorectal cancer were grouped into three groups to be treated differently. FU and LV were given to thirty-six patients, FU, LV, and bevacizumab low dose were given to patients thirty-five, and FU, LV, and bevacizumab high dose were given to thirty-three patients.
FU, LV, and bevacizumab dose has a high response as compared to FU and LV. Partial response to bevacizumab was observed in two patients. Side effects such as thrombosis were also observed and it was severe in one patient. Other side effects were epistaxis and hypertension were also observed.
Therefore, trial results suggest first-line therapy chemotherapy and bevacizumab for treating metastatic colorectal cancer.
The complete question is-
Phase II, randomized trial comparing bevacizumab plus fluorouracil (FU)/leucovorin (LV) with FU/LV alone in patients with metastatic colorectal cancer.
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Jamie, a boy scout, has practiced tying a particular kind of knot dozens of times, and he does it quickly and efficiently. But when he tries to explain how to do it to a younger member of his troop, he can’t put it into words, he can only show the other boy how to do it. Jamie’s knowledge of knot tying is an example of.
Jamie, a boy scout, has practiced tying a particular kind of knot dozens of times, and he does it quickly and efficiently. But when he tries to explain how to do it to a younger member of his troop, he can’t put it into words, he can only show the other boy how to do it. Jamie’s knowledge of knot tying is an example of procedural knowledge.
In the field of knowledge, procedural knowledge is a kind of knowledge that occurs when someone learns to do a task through his actions. The individual knows certain steps that lead to the accomplishment of the task.
There are no facts or research studies made on procedural learning. Just by practicing an action, a person becomes best at it.
As Jamie has been able to learn perfectly how to tie a know by practicing the procedure again and again, hence Jamie’s knowledge of knot tying is an example of procedural knowledge. As his descriptive knowledge of Jamie might not be as good as procedural knowledge, he is not able to teach the younger member of his troop how to tie the knot.
Although a part of your question is missing, you might be referring to this question:
Jamie, a boy scout, has practiced tying a particular kind of knot dozens of times, and he does it quickly and efficiently. But when he tries to explain how to do it to a younger member of his troop, he can't put it into words, he can only show the other boy how to do it. Jamie's knowledge of knot tying is an example of
a. semantic knowledge.
b. procedural knowledge.
c. autobiographical knowledge.
d. declarative knowledge.
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Transdermal drug patches, such as nicotine patches, are applied to the skin. The drug is applied in a relatively high dosage to the inside of the patch, which is worn on the skin for periods of time. The drugs enter the bloodstream directly through the skin. Theoretically, how do the patches work?.
(1) "The drug will move into the blood, through diffusion, for a long period of time, maintaining a constant concentration of drug in the blood." is how patches theoretically work.
The first day, venous nicotine levels peak 6 to 10 hours after delivery because nicotine from patches is slowly absorbed from the skin. After then, nicotine levels are generally constant, declining by 25% to 40% with 24-hour patches from peak to trough.
The amount of nicotine acquired via patches is approximately half that of cigarettes. Smokers are weaned to a medium dosage after 4 to 6 weeks on high-dose patches (21 or 22 mg/24 hours and 15 mg/16 hours), and then to the lowest dose after 2 to 4 more weeks (7 mg/24 hours or 5 mg/16 hours).
The majority of research indicate that abruptly stopping patch use frequently results in little to no withdrawal; hence, tapering doesn't seem to be required.
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Question correction:
Transdermal drug patches, such as nicotine patches, are applied to the skin. The drug is applied in a relatively high dosage to the inside of the patch, which is worn on the skin for periods of time. The drugs enter the bloodstream directly through the skin. Theoretically, how do the patches work?
The drug will move into the blood, through diffusion, for a long period of time, maintaining a constant concentration of drug in the blood. The drug will move into the blood, through osmosis, for a long period of time, maintaining a constant concentration of drug in the blood. The drug will move into to the blood, by facilitated diffusion, for a long period of time, maintaining a constant concentration of drug in the blood. The drug will move into to the blood stream, through active transport, for a long period of time, maintaining a constant concentration of drug in the blood.bricout m, petre a, amini-adle m, et. al.: vogt-koyanagi-harada-like syndrome complicating pembrolizumab treatment for metastatic melanoma. j immunother
A uncommon illness called Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada (VKH) syndrome suggests that melanocytes are the target of a systemic immune response.
Uncertain pathophysiology exists. Given that VKH patients are more likely to have HLA-DR4/DRB1*04, a genetic predisposition has been postulated. In metastatic melanoma patients receiving immunotherapy, such as ipilimumab and adoptive cell transfer of tumor-infiltrating lymphocyte linked with IL-2, drug-induced VKH syndrome has been documented. No case of anti-PD-1-induced VKH syndrome has been reported thus far. Here, we present the case of a HLA-DR4/DRB1*04 patient who underwent successful anti-PD-1 therapy for metastatic melanoma but later experienced a systemic immune response against melanocytes. We also discuss the diagnosis of VKH-like syndrome in this patient, who may have a hereditary predisposition.To learn more about immune response visit:
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a nurse is working at a community clinic that serves mostly families with young children. what would be a priority intervention for clients in this developmental stage?
Setting up parenting classes would be a priority intervention for clients in this developmental stage.
What exactly are Parenting Classes?
Parenting classes are designed to teach you how to cope with your child's development, different sorts of parenting and punishment approaches, how to communicate effectively with your child, and how to deal with continuously changing sentiments in yourself and your child. These workshops give you with the necessary materials to help you expand and improve your skills, as well as educate you on various approaches to utilise at home when speaking with your child.
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When passing a med you should scan the barcode:
O Every time
Only for controlled meds
When you have time
O Only when directed to do so
check all that apply: vitamins group of answer choices supply energy are essential nutrients are nonessential nutrients perform structural roles perform regulatory roles
Conditionally essential nutrients (CENs) are organic compounds that are ordinarily created by the body in amounts sufficient to meet its physiological conditions. However, in disorders, such as cardiovascular disease (CVD), and in other physiologically stressful situations, their biosynthesis may be inadequate.
What are the fundamental and non essential nutrients?
Types of Nutrients
Some edifice blocks of carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids, certain vitamins and minerals and water are necessary nutrients while biotin, vitamin K, cholesterol, dietary fiber, specific amino acids, and fatty acids are non-essential nutrients.
What is an representative of an essential nutrient?
The six important nutrients are vitamins, minerals, protein, fats, water, and carbohydrates.
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a client with a history of heart failure is returning from the operating room after inguinal hernia repair and the nurse assesses a low pulse oximetry reading. what is the most important nursing intervention?
To lessen the workload on the heart, keep the patient in bed. Keep a close eye out for any arrhythmias and treat them as directed. A leaking valve causes regurgitation.
This indicates that the valve does not completely seal, allowing blood to flow backward through it. In the case of the mitral and tricuspid valves, this causes blood to seep back into the atria from the ventricles. The objectives of treatment are to relieve symptoms, increase oxygenation, maintain cardiac output and organ perfusion, and decrease extracellular fluid buildup. Medical Administration
Relieving patient symptoms, enhancing the functional status and quality of life, and extending survival are the main objectives of HF therapy. from the Nursing Mnemonics for Cardiovascular Care.
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A female patient who weighs 65.5kg is prescribed the antibiotic Cidomycin 3mg/kg/day i.v. Calculate the dose in mg of Cidomycin?
Client's weight is 65.5 kg
Cidomycin dose is 3 mg/day/kg
To calculate total Cidomycin dose in mg,
Client per kg dose = 3 mg
So,
total dose = 65/5 x 3 mg = 196.5 mg
So, a female patient having a weight of 65.5 kg can be prescribed a total dose of 196.5 mg Cidomycin.
Cidomycin 80mg/2ml Solution for Injection is the name of the medication. It contains gentamicin, a medication. This is a member of the class of antibiotics known as "aminoglycosides."Cidomycin is used to treat bacterial infections. Among these are infections in:the urinary system (including your kidneys or bladder)thorax (including your lungs)gutspinal cord and brainblood which is sometimes referred to as "septicemia" or "bacteremia."newborn infantsTherefore, the correct answer is 196.5 mg.
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If susan learns that her infertility problem is due to a problem with the __________ successfully implanting, something went wrong during the germinal period.
It is due to a problem with the (B) Blastocyst successfully implanting, something went wrong during the germinal period as per susan when she learns that her infertility problem is due to that.
The portion of the fallopian tube closest to the ovary is often where fertilization takes place, and the embryo develops as it returns down the tube toward the uterus. After fertilization, the embryo typically enters the uterine cavity 5 to 6 days later. It is now a blastocyst, which is an embryo made up of roughly 100 cells.
A blastocyst develops during an IVF cycle in a lab culture system. An embryo is produced after sperm and eggs are fertilized in a woman's ovaries. Over the course of 5 to 6 days, the embryo divides and grows its cell population to form a blastocyst. When transplanted into the body, embryos that make it to this stage of development have a high probability for implantation.
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Question correction:
If Susan learns that her infertility problem is due to a problem with the _______ successfully implanting, something went wrong during the germinal period.
A. Zygote
B. Blastocyst
C. Fetus
D. Trophoblast
the nurse performs a nonstress test (nst) on a client at 36 weeks' gestation. what criteria does the nurse look for on the tracing to determine that the nst is reactive?
As the nurse performs a nonstress test (nst) on a client at 36 weeks' gestation, the criteria such as the presence of 2 accelerations in 20 minute means that the nst is reactive.
A typical prenatal test to evaluate a baby's health is a nonstress test. The baby's heart rate is observed during a non-stress test to evaluate how it reacts to the baby's movements.
Nonstress refers to the fact that no efforts are made throughout the test to stress the infant. Reactive if your baby's heartbeat accelerates to a specific level above the baseline twice or more for at least 10 seconds each within a 20-minute interval, the findings are regarded as normal (reactive) before week 32 of pregnancy.
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200 mg.Stock 10% solution . How many mL(s) will you given
10 percent solution means the solute is only 10% in the solution, so taking the volume of the solvent 100 ml then the mass of the solute will be either 10 gram or 10 ml. For example, 10% solution of sodium chloride (NaCl) means 10 grams of sodium chloride is mixed in 100 ml of water.
200mg=0.2g
0.2 x10=2ml
the nurse takes a call from a worried client who was seen several hours earlier for her 35-weeks' gestation visit, which included a pelvic examination. which instruction should the nurse prioritize if the client is reporting a small amount of vaginal spotting?
The nurse auscultates the lungs of a client with asthma who reports shortness of breath, sore throat, and congestion. which finding does the nurse expect to document?
The nurse should expect to observe how the chest rises and falls - how fast, is it equal, how deep, listen for the sound of the lungs - you can hear an audible sound, if the air intake is equal, is there any unusual sound and feel - put on your hand on your chest, feel the depth of the breath, the symmetry.
What is Asthma?Asthma is a chronic disease that affects the airways, especially the bronchi, which are the channels through which air passes into the lungs, causing them to become inflamed, swollen and produce mucus, or extra secretion. This can cause difficulty breathing, coughing, and shortness of breath.
How does an asthma attack start?Asthma attacks are characterized by coughing, shortness of breath and wheezing, and often the first symptoms are rhinitis, such as sneezing, runny nose and stuffy nose.
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the coordinator notified the subject of the study drug error, which caused the nausea and vomiting. the investigator notified the irb and the irb approved a revision of the standard pharmacy procedure for administering investigational drugs.
global burden of 369 diseases and injuries in 204 countries and territories, 1990–2019: a systematic analysis for the global burden of disease study 2019
In an era of shifting global agendas and expanded emphasis on non-communicable diseases and injuries along with communicable diseases, sound evidence on trends by cause at the national level is essential. The Global Burden of Diseases, Injuries, and Risk Factors Study (GBD) provides a systematic scientific assessment of published, publicly available, and contributed data on incidence, prevalence, and mortality for a mutually exclusive and collectively exhaustive list of diseases and injuries.
Methods
GBD estimates incidence, prevalence, mortality, years of life lost (YLLs), years lived with disability (YLDs), and disability-adjusted life-years (DALYs) due to 369 diseases and injuries, for two sexes, and for 204 countries and territories. Input data were extracted from censuses, household surveys, civil registration and vital statistics, disease registries, health service use, air pollution monitors, satellite imaging, disease notifications, and other sources. Cause-specific death rates and cause fractions were calculated using the Cause of Death Ensemble model and spatiotemporal Gaussian process regression. Cause-specific deaths were adjusted to match the total all-cause deaths calculated as part of the GBD population, fertility, and mortality estimates. Deaths were multiplied by standard life expectancy at each age to calculate YLLs. A Bayesian meta-regression modelling tool, DisMod-MR 2.1, was used to ensure consistency between incidence, prevalence, remission, excess mortality, and cause-specific mortality for most causes. Prevalence estimates were multiplied by disability weights for mutually exclusive sequelae of diseases and injuries to calculate YLDs. We considered results in the context of the Socio-demographic Index (SDI), a composite indicator of income per capita, years of schooling, and fertility rate in females younger than 25 years. Uncertainty intervals (UIs) were generated for every metric using the 25th and 975th ordered 1000 draw values of the posterior distribution.
Findings
Global health has steadily improved over the past 30 years as measured by age-standardised DALY rates. After taking into account population growth and ageing, the absolute number of DALYs has remained stable. Since 2010, the pace of decline in global age-standardised DALY rates has accelerated in age groups younger than 50 years compared with the 1990–2010 time period, with the greatest annualised rate of decline occurring in the 0–9-year age group. Six infectious diseases were among the top ten causes of DALYs in children younger than 10 years in 2019: lower respiratory infections (ranked second), diarrhoeal diseases (third), malaria (fifth), meningitis (sixth), whooping cough (ninth), and sexually transmitted infections (which, in this age group, is fully accounted for by congenital syphilis; ranked tenth). In adolescents aged 10–24 years, three injury causes were among the top causes of DALYs: road injuries (ranked first), self-harm (third), and interpersonal violence (fifth). Five of the causes that were in the top ten for ages 10–24 years were also in the top ten in the 25–49-year age group: road injuries (ranked first), HIV/AIDS (second), low back pain (fourth), headache disorders (fifth), and depressive disorders (sixth). In 2019, ischaemic heart disease and stroke were the top-ranked causes of DALYs in both the 50–74-year and 75-years-and-older age groups. Since 1990, there has been a marked shift towards a greater proportion of burden due to YLDs from non-communicable diseases and injuries. In 2019, there were 11 countries where non-communicable disease and injury YLDs constituted more than half of all disease burden. Decreases in age-standardised DALY rates have accelerated over the past decade in countries at the lower end of the SDI range, while improvements have started to stagnate or even reverse in countries with higher SDI.
Explanation:
the client who has an immobilizer on the arm reports shortness of breath following ambulation to the bathroom. the nurse notes the client's pulse increased from 82 to 124 beats per minute, respirations increased from 16 to 24 breaths per minute, and blood pressure is 90/50 mm hg. the nurse makes the nursing diagnosis of activity intolerance. what are the client's defining characteristics for this diagnosis? select all that apply.
The complete question with options are:
Only a small range of motion
Clients mention feeling out of breath
Lowering of blood pressure raising of respiratory rate
Increasing heart rate
The client's defining characteristics for this diagnosis are, clients report feeling short of breath, which is accompanied by an increase in heart rate and respiratory rate and lowering of blood pressure.
What is meant by immobilizer used on the arm?
While your shoulder recovers, you can use a shoulder immobilizer to prevent your arm from moving. Due to the fact that your arm is kept close to your body, it differs from a sling. Typically, an immobilizer has a wrist band, arm band, and chest band. The chest band will hold each band in place.
In order to keep patients from engaging in any physical activities involving the injured shoulder for the first 4-6 weeks following rotator cuff repair surgery, patients are frequently instructed to wear a sling or brace.
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an 8-year-old boy is found to have a mild concussion and is to be discharged home. the mother is instructed to check her child for responsiveness every 2 hours and to wake him up for this assessment after he goes to sleep. she telephones the nurse and says that she is afraid to allow him to go to sleep. how would the nurse respond?
A slight concussion is discovered in an 8-year-old child, who will then be sent home after treatment.
"If your son gets difficult to rouse, bring him to the hospital," the nurse should inquire.
what is concussion?A hit to the head or a strong shaking of the head and body can injure the brain, resulting in concussion.This results from a light head injury, can cause momentary cognitive problems, and can cause loss of consciousness.A headache, disorientation, poor coordination, memory loss, nausea, vomiting, dizziness, ringing in the ears, excessive drowsiness, and weariness are possible symptoms.Concussions cannot be specifically treated.The brain may heal with rest and limited activity. This includes limiting sports, video games, TV, and excessive socialising for a while.Treatment options for symptoms include odansetron or other anti-nausea drugs, as well as painkillers for headaches.To know more about concussion , refer to the following link:
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two technicians are discussing shopkeypro technician a says that the 1search module is the preferred module to use because it is the quickest and most efficient way of gathering all diagnostic and repair related information about a code component or system. technician b says the service manual module is prefered search method because it is also built for speed and efficiency
Technicians are a group of engineers who help to understand the equipment and it makes it easy for people.
Who is the technician?Technicians are engineers which help in the study of equipment and machines.
In the medical field, machines are required for various purposes. Various medical instruments such as ECG, dialysis, and many other instruments are required.
Two scientists say that the first module is preferred because it is the quickest and technician b says the service module is preferred because it is used to build for speed and efficiency.
Two technicians are saying this from their perspectives because they both have different perspectives and both are true.
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a nurse is assisting in the transfer of a client to a stretcher. the client has casts on both legs. what is the nurse's best choice of transfer equipment for this client who cannot bear weight on either leg?
The (B) Transfer chair is the nurse's best choice of transfer equipment for this client who cannot bear weight on either leg.
There are chairs that can be used as stretchers. These are helpful for customers who are incapable of supporting their own weight, have trouble following instructions, or are uncooperative.
There is no need to raise the client because the chair back bends back and the leg supports rise to create a stretcher configuration. Devices for repositioning and powered-stand assistance require the user to be able to bear weight on one leg. Gait belts are employed to help customers move around securely.
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Question correction:
A nurse is assisting in the transfer of a client to a stretcher. The client has casts on both legs. What is the nurse's best choice of transfer equipment for this client who cannot bear weight on either leg?
A) Powered-stand assist
B) Transfer chair
C) Repositioning lift
D) Gait belt