a nurse is assisting in the transfer of a client to a stretcher. the client has casts on both legs. what is the nurse's best choice of transfer equipment for this client who cannot bear weight on either leg?
The (B) Transfer chair is the nurse's best choice of transfer equipment for this client who cannot bear weight on either leg.
There are chairs that can be used as stretchers. These are helpful for customers who are incapable of supporting their own weight, have trouble following instructions, or are uncooperative.
There is no need to raise the client because the chair back bends back and the leg supports rise to create a stretcher configuration. Devices for repositioning and powered-stand assistance require the user to be able to bear weight on one leg. Gait belts are employed to help customers move around securely.
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Question correction:
A nurse is assisting in the transfer of a client to a stretcher. The client has casts on both legs. What is the nurse's best choice of transfer equipment for this client who cannot bear weight on either leg?
A) Powered-stand assist
B) Transfer chair
C) Repositioning lift
D) Gait belt
A female patient who weighs 65.5kg is prescribed the antibiotic Cidomycin 3mg/kg/day i.v. Calculate the dose in mg of Cidomycin?
Client's weight is 65.5 kg
Cidomycin dose is 3 mg/day/kg
To calculate total Cidomycin dose in mg,
Client per kg dose = 3 mg
So,
total dose = 65/5 x 3 mg = 196.5 mg
So, a female patient having a weight of 65.5 kg can be prescribed a total dose of 196.5 mg Cidomycin.
Cidomycin 80mg/2ml Solution for Injection is the name of the medication. It contains gentamicin, a medication. This is a member of the class of antibiotics known as "aminoglycosides."Cidomycin is used to treat bacterial infections. Among these are infections in:the urinary system (including your kidneys or bladder)thorax (including your lungs)gutspinal cord and brainblood which is sometimes referred to as "septicemia" or "bacteremia."newborn infantsTherefore, the correct answer is 196.5 mg.
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the nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing hypotension. the nurse is concerned about the significant drop in the client's blood pressure and decides to contact the client's health care provider. when preparing a report for the health care provider using the sbar format, what will the nurse include? select all that apply.
"Can you tell me what foods you prefer to eat and what your family is
bringing you?" will the nurse include the nurse
What nursing care behavior by the nurse engenders a client's trust in the nurse?A nurse answers the client's questions about an upcoming test in a calm gentle voice while making eye contact with the client.
The SBAR (Situation-Background-Assessment-Recommendation) technique offers a framework for discussion of a patient's condition among members of the healthcare team.
SBAR is a simple, concrete framework that can be used to frame any conversation, especially those that are urgent, and call for a clinician's immediate attention and action.
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a pregnant client has come to the labor and birth suite in labor. the nurse reviews the client's medical record and determines that a vaginal birth is favorable based on which finding related to the client's pelvic shape?
The nurse reviews the client's medical record and determines that a vaginal birth is favorable because the client has gynecoid pelvis.
What is Gynecoid pelvis ?
Gynecoid pelvis: Due to its shape and bone structure, the gynecoid pelvis is typically associated with women. Gynecoid is a slang term for female or like a woman.
The gynecoid pelvis is less high, broader, and more delicate than the male pelvis. The female pubic arch has a broad, rounded angle. The iliac bone is flatter in females and the sacrum is wider in females than in males. The female pelvic cavity is larger and less funnel-shaped.
Purely anatomically speaking, the female pelvis is better equipped to support the fetus during pregnancy and enable delivery.
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the nurse is assigned to care for a newly admitted client. the nurse performs a physical | assessment and reviews the admission form and the primary health care provider’s prescriptions. which would the nurse identify as the priorities in this client's plan of care? |
3) Hygiene and comfort
Given that the patient's condition is terminal, basic care and comfort should be the nursing priority. When caring for a patient who is dying, comfort-giving takes precedence over other parts of nursing care, such as input and output, nutrition and diet body mechanics, and posture.
Nutrition- The process of consuming food and transforming it into energy and other essential elements is known as nutrition. The compounds known as nutrients are what the body needs to produce the biomolecules and energy needed to carry out its many activities. Nutrients are essential for the growth and effective operation of all living things.
The given question is incomplete, find below the complete question,
Q. A nurse is assigned to care for a newly admitted client. The nurse performs a physical assessment and reviews the admission form and the health care provider's prescriptions. What should the nurse identify as the priorities in this client's plan of care?
1) Intake and output
2) Diet and nutrition
3) Hygiene and comfort
4) Body mechanics and posture
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two technicians are discussing shopkeypro technician a says that the 1search module is the preferred module to use because it is the quickest and most efficient way of gathering all diagnostic and repair related information about a code component or system. technician b says the service manual module is prefered search method because it is also built for speed and efficiency
Technicians are a group of engineers who help to understand the equipment and it makes it easy for people.
Who is the technician?Technicians are engineers which help in the study of equipment and machines.
In the medical field, machines are required for various purposes. Various medical instruments such as ECG, dialysis, and many other instruments are required.
Two scientists say that the first module is preferred because it is the quickest and technician b says the service module is preferred because it is used to build for speed and efficiency.
Two technicians are saying this from their perspectives because they both have different perspectives and both are true.
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200 mg.Stock 10% solution . How many mL(s) will you given
10 percent solution means the solute is only 10% in the solution, so taking the volume of the solvent 100 ml then the mass of the solute will be either 10 gram or 10 ml. For example, 10% solution of sodium chloride (NaCl) means 10 grams of sodium chloride is mixed in 100 ml of water.
200mg=0.2g
0.2 x10=2ml
Transdermal drug patches, such as nicotine patches, are applied to the skin. The drug is applied in a relatively high dosage to the inside of the patch, which is worn on the skin for periods of time. The drugs enter the bloodstream directly through the skin. Theoretically, how do the patches work?.
(1) "The drug will move into the blood, through diffusion, for a long period of time, maintaining a constant concentration of drug in the blood." is how patches theoretically work.
The first day, venous nicotine levels peak 6 to 10 hours after delivery because nicotine from patches is slowly absorbed from the skin. After then, nicotine levels are generally constant, declining by 25% to 40% with 24-hour patches from peak to trough.
The amount of nicotine acquired via patches is approximately half that of cigarettes. Smokers are weaned to a medium dosage after 4 to 6 weeks on high-dose patches (21 or 22 mg/24 hours and 15 mg/16 hours), and then to the lowest dose after 2 to 4 more weeks (7 mg/24 hours or 5 mg/16 hours).
The majority of research indicate that abruptly stopping patch use frequently results in little to no withdrawal; hence, tapering doesn't seem to be required.
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Question correction:
Transdermal drug patches, such as nicotine patches, are applied to the skin. The drug is applied in a relatively high dosage to the inside of the patch, which is worn on the skin for periods of time. The drugs enter the bloodstream directly through the skin. Theoretically, how do the patches work?
The drug will move into the blood, through diffusion, for a long period of time, maintaining a constant concentration of drug in the blood. The drug will move into the blood, through osmosis, for a long period of time, maintaining a constant concentration of drug in the blood. The drug will move into to the blood, by facilitated diffusion, for a long period of time, maintaining a constant concentration of drug in the blood. The drug will move into to the blood stream, through active transport, for a long period of time, maintaining a constant concentration of drug in the blood.the nurse is assisting a pregnant client who underwent a nonstress test that was ruled reactive. which factor will the nurse point out when questioned by the client about the results?
Option b) The fetal heart rate increases with activity and indicates fetal well-being.
How does a non-stress test work?A typical prenatal test to evaluate a baby’s health is a nonstress test. The baby’s heart rate is observed during a non-stress test to evaluate how it reacts to the baby’s movements.
Nonstress refers to the fact that no efforts are made throughout the test to stress the infant.
A positive non-stress test is what?Your kid is receiving enough oxygen and is doing well, according to a normal NST. If the results are out of the ordinary, your doctor might advise more testing.
An NST can yield one of two outcomes. Reactive: This indicates that at least twice during the test, your baby’s heart rate increased to the desired level.
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the nurse performs a nonstress test (nst) on a client at 36 weeks' gestation. what criteria does the nurse look for on the tracing to determine that the nst is reactive?
As the nurse performs a nonstress test (nst) on a client at 36 weeks' gestation, the criteria such as the presence of 2 accelerations in 20 minute means that the nst is reactive.
A typical prenatal test to evaluate a baby's health is a nonstress test. The baby's heart rate is observed during a non-stress test to evaluate how it reacts to the baby's movements.
Nonstress refers to the fact that no efforts are made throughout the test to stress the infant. Reactive if your baby's heartbeat accelerates to a specific level above the baseline twice or more for at least 10 seconds each within a 20-minute interval, the findings are regarded as normal (reactive) before week 32 of pregnancy.
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a client has been prescribed morphine 4 – 6 mg iv q4h prn. the client reports pain rated at 8/10 and the nurse verifies on the mar that the client has most often required 6-mg doses. the nurse chooses to administer 6 mg. the drug is available in ampules containing 10mg/ml. how many ml should the nurse withdraw and administer?
a nurse is caring for a child with diagnosed cellulitis on the left lower leg. the nurse notes erythema spreading toward the knee and warmth over the area. the child complains of pain. which priority action should the nurse take
the beneficial effects of a recommendation should be described to the patient before they are warned of any potential difficulties or adverse effects.
the beneficial effects of a recommendation should be described to the patient before they are warned of any potential difficulties or adverse effects. So the answer is True.
Adverse Effect:
An adverse effect is a bad side effect caused by a medicine or other intervention, such as surgery. When an unfavourable effect is seen to be secondary to a primary or therapeutic effect, it is referred to as a "side effect."
Beneficial effect
A beneficial effect is one that occurs immediately and has no negative consequences. If the overall effect of the planned action is positive but it is also likely to have some negative consequences, the proposed action is deemed to have a negative impact. See also the preceding definition of "adversely effect."
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global burden of 369 diseases and injuries in 204 countries and territories, 1990–2019: a systematic analysis for the global burden of disease study 2019
In an era of shifting global agendas and expanded emphasis on non-communicable diseases and injuries along with communicable diseases, sound evidence on trends by cause at the national level is essential. The Global Burden of Diseases, Injuries, and Risk Factors Study (GBD) provides a systematic scientific assessment of published, publicly available, and contributed data on incidence, prevalence, and mortality for a mutually exclusive and collectively exhaustive list of diseases and injuries.
Methods
GBD estimates incidence, prevalence, mortality, years of life lost (YLLs), years lived with disability (YLDs), and disability-adjusted life-years (DALYs) due to 369 diseases and injuries, for two sexes, and for 204 countries and territories. Input data were extracted from censuses, household surveys, civil registration and vital statistics, disease registries, health service use, air pollution monitors, satellite imaging, disease notifications, and other sources. Cause-specific death rates and cause fractions were calculated using the Cause of Death Ensemble model and spatiotemporal Gaussian process regression. Cause-specific deaths were adjusted to match the total all-cause deaths calculated as part of the GBD population, fertility, and mortality estimates. Deaths were multiplied by standard life expectancy at each age to calculate YLLs. A Bayesian meta-regression modelling tool, DisMod-MR 2.1, was used to ensure consistency between incidence, prevalence, remission, excess mortality, and cause-specific mortality for most causes. Prevalence estimates were multiplied by disability weights for mutually exclusive sequelae of diseases and injuries to calculate YLDs. We considered results in the context of the Socio-demographic Index (SDI), a composite indicator of income per capita, years of schooling, and fertility rate in females younger than 25 years. Uncertainty intervals (UIs) were generated for every metric using the 25th and 975th ordered 1000 draw values of the posterior distribution.
Findings
Global health has steadily improved over the past 30 years as measured by age-standardised DALY rates. After taking into account population growth and ageing, the absolute number of DALYs has remained stable. Since 2010, the pace of decline in global age-standardised DALY rates has accelerated in age groups younger than 50 years compared with the 1990–2010 time period, with the greatest annualised rate of decline occurring in the 0–9-year age group. Six infectious diseases were among the top ten causes of DALYs in children younger than 10 years in 2019: lower respiratory infections (ranked second), diarrhoeal diseases (third), malaria (fifth), meningitis (sixth), whooping cough (ninth), and sexually transmitted infections (which, in this age group, is fully accounted for by congenital syphilis; ranked tenth). In adolescents aged 10–24 years, three injury causes were among the top causes of DALYs: road injuries (ranked first), self-harm (third), and interpersonal violence (fifth). Five of the causes that were in the top ten for ages 10–24 years were also in the top ten in the 25–49-year age group: road injuries (ranked first), HIV/AIDS (second), low back pain (fourth), headache disorders (fifth), and depressive disorders (sixth). In 2019, ischaemic heart disease and stroke were the top-ranked causes of DALYs in both the 50–74-year and 75-years-and-older age groups. Since 1990, there has been a marked shift towards a greater proportion of burden due to YLDs from non-communicable diseases and injuries. In 2019, there were 11 countries where non-communicable disease and injury YLDs constituted more than half of all disease burden. Decreases in age-standardised DALY rates have accelerated over the past decade in countries at the lower end of the SDI range, while improvements have started to stagnate or even reverse in countries with higher SDI.
Explanation:
Consider a disease in which there is no cure. once a person is infected, they have the disease for life. in a population where no one moves in or out (i.e., a steady-state population), how could the prevalence of such a disease increase over time while the incidence remains the same? explain.
The prevalence of such a disease increases over time while the incidence remains the same as there are no people moving in and out and more people are catching the disease.
In the field of science, prevalence can be described as the particular rate at which a disease occurs in a population.
The prevalence of a disease depends on two factors which are incidence rate and average duration of disease.
As there are no movements in the above-mentioned population, then this means that more and more people in the population will be affected by this disease with the passage of time. However, the rate of spread of this disease i.e incidence rate will remain the same. For the incidence rate to increase, there shall be factors which promote the quick spreading of this disease.
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When new phenomenon arise, psychologists develop new research studies to generate knowledge on that new phenomenon
The new phenomenon can be used new research subjects as follows:
What exactly is the phenomena in a study?Any issue, problem, or topic that is selected as the focus of an investigation might be considered a research phenomenon.
The phenomena may have its roots in a theoretical field, the real world, or even a unique experience or insight.
What does a psychological phenomenon mean?A phenomenon, in a broader sense, is a fundamental psychological process with theoretically inferred causes and effects that explains human cognitions, emotions, and behaviors.
It is debatable as to whether ego depletion is a phenomenon or a consequence.
What is a research phenomenon example?Occurrence across the sciences
Things that happen naturally—phenomena—occur or show up without human intervention.
Gravity, tides, moons, planets, volcanic lightning, starling swarms, ant armies, sandstorms, and biological phenomena are a few examples of natural phenomena.
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In a classic medical case study, it was written that phineas gage became emotionally labile and unable to restrain his impulsive behaviors after a severe head injury. While this account appears to have been vastly overstated, because of this story, these functions were associated with damage to which part of the brain?.
In a classic medical case study, it was written that Phineas gage became emotionally labile and unable to restrain his impulsive behaviors after a severe head injury. Much of the brain damage will occur in the frontal lobes.
The human brain consists of three parts: Forebrain, midbrain, and hindbrain.
Its three main parts are the cerebrum, brainstem, and cerebellum.
The principal purpose of all these parts is to maintain coordination, integration, processing, and other functions of the body.
The forebrain is composed of two major parts called frontal lobes and temporal lobes.
Frontal lobes are more vulnerable to injuries and traumatic accidents as they are located in the forehead region and are the most common areas of injury. A severe head injury can generate impulsive behavioral issues such as Kleptomania.
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While administering a medication via a syringe, a client sharply moves and the nurse accidentally encounters a needlestick. what is the priority nursing action?
The correct answer is [C] Report the needle stick to the nurse manager.
A client suddenly shifts while the nurse is using a syringe to provide medication, and she unintentionally sticks herself with a needle. The nurse should notify the nurse management of the needle poke as soon as possible.
What a nurse should do when encounter the needlestick?A nurse should cleanse cuts and needlesticks with soap and water. Splashes on the skin, mouth, or nose should be rinsed with water. Use sterile irrigants, saline solution, or clean water to clean your eyes. Describe the situation to your manager. Get medical help right away.
Nurses should notify a supervisor right away about any exposures. The fact that nurses are frequently reluctant to disclose quickly away is one of the biggest issues. It's possible that they don't want to "dump" their work on others, and they occasionally worry about being punished for reporting a sharps injury. Some people even refuse to report because they are too shocked or afraid to face the potential of getting sick. To assist stop the spread of bloodborne diseases, treatment should start right once rather than delaying reporting.
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The complete question should be:
"While administering a medication via a syringe, a client sharply moves and the nurse accidentally encounters a needlestick. what is the priority nursing action?
A. Request counseling on the potential for infection.
B. Document the injury.
C. Report the needle stick to the nurse manager.
D. Obtain the client's blood to be tested for HIV and HBV."
the nurse is assessing a pregnant client at 37 weeks' gestation and notes the fetus is at 0 station. when questioned by the client as to what has happened, the nurse should point out which event has occurred?
The nurse should point out Engagement event has occurred.
Explanation:Engagement is the process by which the fetus exits the upper uterus and enters the pelvis. The fetus is beginning its first cardinal movement in anticipation of spontaneous vaginal delivery. Flexion happens when the soft tissues and muscles of the pelvic floor resist the fetus. When a fetus is in extension, its head is fully flexed and its chin rests on its chest as it passes through the birth canal. Expulsion happens after the anterior and posterior shoulders emerge.According to their findings, "the concept of patient engagement can be defined as the desire and capacity to actively choose to participate in care in a way that is individually appropriate to the individual in cooperation with a healthcare provider or institution for the purposes of maximizing outcomes or experiences of care.To learn more about events in medicine, refer
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the parents of a neonate born at 32 weeks' gestation ask about the purpose of the surfactant being given to the baby. what is the best response by the nurse?
"Surfactant improves the ability of your baby's lungs to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide." is the best response by the nurse.
As an addition to oxygen and ventilation treatment, surfactant can be given. Until the newborn can produce enough surfactant on their own, respiratory compliance is increased by the introduction of an artificial surfactant. The infant's demands for sedation are unaffected by surfactant. Improved respiratory compliance, including the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide, is achieved with the use of surfactant.
Surfactant treatment aims to increase the synthesis of surfactant in the type 2 cells of the alveoli in infants with RDS. Neonatal pneumonia and RDS may have a similar clinical appearance. To treat the illness, the newborn could be given a course of broad-spectrum antibiotics.
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the nurse is performing chest auscultation for a patient with asthma. how does the nurse describe the high-pitched, sibilant, musical sounds that are heard?
The nurse is performing chest auscultation for a patient with asthma. The nurse describe the Wheezes high-pitched, sibilant, musical sounds that are heard.
Asthma- A long-term illness that causes the bronchial airways in the lungs to shrink and swell, making breathing challenging. Wheezing, coughing, chest tightness, shortness of breath, and fast breathing are some of the symptoms.
Bronchial airways- The broad tubes known as bronchi link to the trachea (windpipe) and send air to our left and right lungs, respectively. They are within of us. The word "bronchus" is pluralized as "bronchi." Our left lung receives air through the left bronchus. Our right lung receives air through the right bronchus.
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the school nurse noticed a preschool-aged girl scratching her head all the time. when asked, the little girl said i have ticking feeling in my scalp. the school nurse should investigate further for .
The school nurse should investigate further for pediculosis capitis in a girl who is always scratching her head.
Pediculosis capitis is a condition in which small insects infest the human scalp. They are generally called lice and are scientifically known as Pediculus humanus capitis. These are more found in people sharing hair brushes, scarves, and hats with others. Also, this is more common in younger females than males.
The life cycle of a female louse is about 1 month. It lays 7-10 eggs per day and these eggs are set against the head scalp of the host. These eggs release nymphs after 8 days of hatching and then the nymph requires another 8 days to become mature. They grasp the host's hair and feed on their head, sucking blood.
Antiparasitics are generally prescribed. Medicated shampoos and creams are recommended to rinse these lice off the scalp.
This is done to get rid of scratching the head over and over again.
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the nurse takes a call from a worried client who was seen several hours earlier for her 35-weeks' gestation visit, which included a pelvic examination. which instruction should the nurse prioritize if the client is reporting a small amount of vaginal spotting?
The nurse auscultates the lungs of a client with asthma who reports shortness of breath, sore throat, and congestion. which finding does the nurse expect to document?
The nurse should expect to observe how the chest rises and falls - how fast, is it equal, how deep, listen for the sound of the lungs - you can hear an audible sound, if the air intake is equal, is there any unusual sound and feel - put on your hand on your chest, feel the depth of the breath, the symmetry.
What is Asthma?Asthma is a chronic disease that affects the airways, especially the bronchi, which are the channels through which air passes into the lungs, causing them to become inflamed, swollen and produce mucus, or extra secretion. This can cause difficulty breathing, coughing, and shortness of breath.
How does an asthma attack start?Asthma attacks are characterized by coughing, shortness of breath and wheezing, and often the first symptoms are rhinitis, such as sneezing, runny nose and stuffy nose.
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bricout m, petre a, amini-adle m, et. al.: vogt-koyanagi-harada-like syndrome complicating pembrolizumab treatment for metastatic melanoma. j immunother
A uncommon illness called Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada (VKH) syndrome suggests that melanocytes are the target of a systemic immune response.
Uncertain pathophysiology exists. Given that VKH patients are more likely to have HLA-DR4/DRB1*04, a genetic predisposition has been postulated. In metastatic melanoma patients receiving immunotherapy, such as ipilimumab and adoptive cell transfer of tumor-infiltrating lymphocyte linked with IL-2, drug-induced VKH syndrome has been documented. No case of anti-PD-1-induced VKH syndrome has been reported thus far. Here, we present the case of a HLA-DR4/DRB1*04 patient who underwent successful anti-PD-1 therapy for metastatic melanoma but later experienced a systemic immune response against melanocytes. We also discuss the diagnosis of VKH-like syndrome in this patient, who may have a hereditary predisposition.To learn more about immune response visit:
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What industry's workers experience the most nonfatal workplace violence compared to other professions by a wide margin?
Answer:
??? what are the answers
Explanation:
According to Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS) data, healthcare and social assistance workers experience the most nonfatal workplace violence compared to workers in other professions by a wide margin.
What are healthcare workers?In 2019, healthcare and social assistance workers experienced 73% of all nonfatal workplace violence incidents, despite comprising only 16% of the workforce. The BLS defines workplace violence as any act or threat of physical violence, harassment, intimidation, or other threatening behavior that occurs at the work site. Within the healthcare and social assistance industries, workers in psychiatric and substance abuse hospitals, emergency departments, and residential care facilities experience the highest rates of workplace violence.
Hence, according to Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS) data, healthcare and social assistance workers experience the most nonfatal workplace violence compared to workers in other professions by a wide margin.
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Which statement describes the nurse’s best analysis regarding cautious use of sedatives in clients over 65 years of age?
a. Older clients have decreased therapeutic effects from sleeping medication
b. Older clients have an increased risk of nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity related to sedative use
c. Older clients are more prone to the effect of fluid and electrolyte imbalances
d. People over 65 years of age are more prone to addition and dependence
Answer:
C. Older clients are more prone to the effect of fluid and electrolyte imbalances
a. Older clients have decreased therapeutic effects from sleeping medication.
Why older clients have decreased therapeutic effects from sleeping medication?As people age, they may become more sensitive to the effects of medications, including sedatives. The body's metabolism and elimination of drugs can also slow down, which can result in prolonged and heightened effects.
Therefore, older clients may experience decreased therapeutic effects from sleeping medication and an increased risk of adverse reactions. It is important for healthcare providers to use caution when prescribing sedatives to older clients and to monitor their use closely.
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the nurse discovers a new prescription for rho(d) immune globulin for a client who is about to undergo a diagnostic procedure. the nurse will administer the rho(d) immune globulin after which procedure?
The nurse locates a fresh RhoGAM prescription for a patient who is ready to have diagnosis testing done. After the amniocentesis operation, the nurse will provide the RhoGAM.
What is Diagnosis?Identification of a given phenomenon's nature and origin is known as diagnosis.The process of diagnosis, which varies in how it uses logic, analytics, and experience to ascertain "cause and effect," is employed in a wide range of fields.It is often used to identify the origins of symptoms, mitigating factors, and remedies in systems engineering and computer science.finding a disease, ailment, or injury based on its signs and symptomsTo aid with the diagnosis, a physical examination, medical history, and testing such blood tests, imaging tests, and biopsies may be employed.To know more about Diagnosis, refer to the following link:
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Jamie, a boy scout, has practiced tying a particular kind of knot dozens of times, and he does it quickly and efficiently. But when he tries to explain how to do it to a younger member of his troop, he can’t put it into words, he can only show the other boy how to do it. Jamie’s knowledge of knot tying is an example of.
Jamie, a boy scout, has practiced tying a particular kind of knot dozens of times, and he does it quickly and efficiently. But when he tries to explain how to do it to a younger member of his troop, he can’t put it into words, he can only show the other boy how to do it. Jamie’s knowledge of knot tying is an example of procedural knowledge.
In the field of knowledge, procedural knowledge is a kind of knowledge that occurs when someone learns to do a task through his actions. The individual knows certain steps that lead to the accomplishment of the task.
There are no facts or research studies made on procedural learning. Just by practicing an action, a person becomes best at it.
As Jamie has been able to learn perfectly how to tie a know by practicing the procedure again and again, hence Jamie’s knowledge of knot tying is an example of procedural knowledge. As his descriptive knowledge of Jamie might not be as good as procedural knowledge, he is not able to teach the younger member of his troop how to tie the knot.
Although a part of your question is missing, you might be referring to this question:
Jamie, a boy scout, has practiced tying a particular kind of knot dozens of times, and he does it quickly and efficiently. But when he tries to explain how to do it to a younger member of his troop, he can't put it into words, he can only show the other boy how to do it. Jamie's knowledge of knot tying is an example of
a. semantic knowledge.
b. procedural knowledge.
c. autobiographical knowledge.
d. declarative knowledge.
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When passing a med you should scan the barcode:
O Every time
Only for controlled meds
When you have time
O Only when directed to do so