It is true to say that the transactional theory of stress calls for both a primary assessment of a stressor to identify whether a demand is stressful and a later assessment to decide how to deal with the stressor.
Lazarus and Folkman (1984) created the most influential theory of stress and coping, which described stress as the outcome of an imbalance between perceived internal or external demands and the perceived personal and societal resources to deal with them.
The amount of stress is reliant on cognitive assessment and is seen as a potentially stressful occurrence that involves a transaction between the person and their surroundings.
Primary appraisal, secondary evaluation, and emotional forecasting are the first two phases of cognitive appraisal.
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the nurse is performing chest auscultation for a patient with asthma. how does the nurse describe the high-pitched, sibilant, musical sounds that are heard?
The nurse is performing chest auscultation for a patient with asthma. The nurse describe the Wheezes high-pitched, sibilant, musical sounds that are heard.
Asthma- A long-term illness that causes the bronchial airways in the lungs to shrink and swell, making breathing challenging. Wheezing, coughing, chest tightness, shortness of breath, and fast breathing are some of the symptoms.
Bronchial airways- The broad tubes known as bronchi link to the trachea (windpipe) and send air to our left and right lungs, respectively. They are within of us. The word "bronchus" is pluralized as "bronchi." Our left lung receives air through the left bronchus. Our right lung receives air through the right bronchus.
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a client has been prescribed morphine 4 – 6 mg iv q4h prn. the client reports pain rated at 8/10 and the nurse verifies on the mar that the client has most often required 6-mg doses. the nurse chooses to administer 6 mg. the drug is available in ampules containing 10mg/ml. how many ml should the nurse withdraw and administer?
3.
Lisa Warren is a newly hired health insurance specialist at a small medical practice, and she is responsible for completing and submitting CMS-
1500 claims. Toward the end of her second day on the job, she is asked to take a phone call from a patient who has questions about his
submitted claim.
The patient tells Lisa that he just received an explanation of benefits (EOB) from his third-party payer, and it makes no sense because the
bottom part of the form that is supposed to include a tear-off check is blank. He tells Lisa that EOB says that he agreed to the assignment of
benefits. The patient is upset because he needs that money to buy groceries.
Lisa uses the medical practice's electronic health record system to quickly access the patient's record, submitted CMS-1500 claim, and
remittance advice the practice received from the payer. Lisa explains to the patient that the physician accepts assignment from this payer. She
further explains that according to her file, the account is considered paid in full because the patient paid her $20 copayment at the time of the
encounter.
The patient argues that the medical practice owes him money because he was supposed to receive a check from the payer.
What is meant by the phrase assignment of benefits?
The phrase assignment of benefits is referred to as an agreement that transfers the insurance claims rights of the policy to a third party. The benefits which comes with the policy are also transferred as a result of some factors.
What is Insurance?This is defined as the form of protection from any loss or damage and there are different types which include health insurance, vehicle insurance etc.
In an agreement of benefit, the third party has the right to file a claim or change the conditions or agreement with the company. The insurance payments can also be collected without the involvement of the owner as a result of certain rights being transferred.
The third party then pays the required percentage to the owner according to the agreement between them and is therefore the most appropriate answer.
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a nurse is providing care to a woman in labor. when reviewing the woman's medical record, the nurse notes that fetal position is documented as lsa. the nurse interprets this to mean that which part of the fetus is presenting?
Effacement guides to the degree of thinning of the cervix. Cervical dilation refers to the period of opening at the widest diameter.
Which assessment would suggest that a woman is in true labor ?
True labor is indicated by contractions occurring at regular intervals that increase in commonness, duration, and intensity. These compacting bring about progressive cervical dilation and effacement. Thus, a cervix enlarged to 4 cm and 90% effaced suggests true labor.
When assessing a patient in true labor Which of the tracking is most likely to be seen?
When true labor occurs, the cervix becomes softened and dilated and effacement occurs; this process is evident by a bloody show, which is the displacement of cervical mucus that is pinkish in color. This typically occurs during true labor, however can occasionally occur in false labor if early cervical changes have occurred.
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The nurse provides care for a patient with a chest tube flutter valve in place and recalls which information about the device?
The nurse cares for a patient with a chest tube flutter valve installed and reminds her that this equipment is used to prevent air from flowing back along a chest tube.
What Does a Chest Tube Vibration Valve Do?A vibration valve (also known as a Heimlich valve after its inventor, Henry Heimlich) is a one-way valve used in respiratory medicine to prevent air from flowing back along a chest tube.
With this information, we can conclude that The flutter valve drainage bag is a 'no water' ambulatory system which incorporates a one-way valve and can be used both in hospital and outpatient drainage of pleural collections
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In HMIS, Properly describe the hospital triage
Answer:
In hospital Information management and systems, hospital triage is a simplicity of categorizing patients within the hospital
Black tagged → Critical condition, patient dies even when treatment is undertaken
Red tagged → Critical condition, patient dies if treatment is not immediate.
Green triage → Normal condition, patient stays alive even when treatment is provided lately.
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Answer:
Triage is the summarizing of information to be managed in all hospital sectors
An Electronic Scope of Appointment valid for
The scope of the appointment for a client encounter can be gathered in a number of permissible ways.
For some Medicare client appointments, you may now use an electronic scope of the appointment. As long as the agent and client have access to a computer and an email address, you can utilize this eSOA.
Agents utilize this technique a lot these days because there are so many telephonic and internet enrollments. Customers simply need a few minutes to finish the scope. The process is really simple. The use of eSOAs is permitted by CMS.
If Medicare sales representatives wanted to discuss MA or PDP plans, they had to obtain a signed SOA 48 hours before meeting with their customer.
CMS continues to prefer that sales agents have a signed scope of appointment 48 hours beforehand, but they will accept SOAs that are signed just before a meeting if there is a valid excuse. Examples of causes include walk-in customers and telephone-arranged appointments.
The SOA's main function is to demonstrate the sales agent's authority to speak to a client or potential client about a certain type of plan or type of plan.
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a pregnant client who is planning to have genetic testing asks the nurse when she should schedule her amniocentesis. what should the nurse tell the client?
GeneticGenetic amniocentesis is usually done between weeks 15 and 20 of pregnancy.
What is always taken into account in a genetic analysis?The term "DNA test" can also refer to genetic testing. This particular test can spot alterations to your body's proteins, chromosomes, or genes. A sample of your blood, skin, hair, tissue, or amniotic fluid is required for genetic testing. Your genetic issue may be confirmed or ruled out by the test.
Amniocentesis done before week 15 pregnancy has been associated with a higher rate of complications.
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A client develops a skin reaction to one of their prescribed medications. this client also has a specific underlying pathology. this underlying pathology might serve as a:________
Answer:
contraindication for the use of certain medications.
Explanation:
the nurse is assessing a pregnant client at 37 weeks' gestation and notes the fetus is at 0 station. when questioned by the client as to what has happened, the nurse should point out which event has occurred?
The nurse should point out Engagement event has occurred.
Explanation:Engagement is the process by which the fetus exits the upper uterus and enters the pelvis. The fetus is beginning its first cardinal movement in anticipation of spontaneous vaginal delivery. Flexion happens when the soft tissues and muscles of the pelvic floor resist the fetus. When a fetus is in extension, its head is fully flexed and its chin rests on its chest as it passes through the birth canal. Expulsion happens after the anterior and posterior shoulders emerge.According to their findings, "the concept of patient engagement can be defined as the desire and capacity to actively choose to participate in care in a way that is individually appropriate to the individual in cooperation with a healthcare provider or institution for the purposes of maximizing outcomes or experiences of care.To learn more about events in medicine, refer
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In a classic medical case study, it was written that phineas gage became emotionally labile and unable to restrain his impulsive behaviors after a severe head injury. While this account appears to have been vastly overstated, because of this story, these functions were associated with damage to which part of the brain?.
In a classic medical case study, it was written that Phineas gage became emotionally labile and unable to restrain his impulsive behaviors after a severe head injury. Much of the brain damage will occur in the frontal lobes.
The human brain consists of three parts: Forebrain, midbrain, and hindbrain.
Its three main parts are the cerebrum, brainstem, and cerebellum.
The principal purpose of all these parts is to maintain coordination, integration, processing, and other functions of the body.
The forebrain is composed of two major parts called frontal lobes and temporal lobes.
Frontal lobes are more vulnerable to injuries and traumatic accidents as they are located in the forehead region and are the most common areas of injury. A severe head injury can generate impulsive behavioral issues such as Kleptomania.
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While administering a medication via a syringe, a client sharply moves and the nurse accidentally encounters a needlestick. what is the priority nursing action?
The correct answer is [C] Report the needle stick to the nurse manager.
A client suddenly shifts while the nurse is using a syringe to provide medication, and she unintentionally sticks herself with a needle. The nurse should notify the nurse management of the needle poke as soon as possible.
What a nurse should do when encounter the needlestick?A nurse should cleanse cuts and needlesticks with soap and water. Splashes on the skin, mouth, or nose should be rinsed with water. Use sterile irrigants, saline solution, or clean water to clean your eyes. Describe the situation to your manager. Get medical help right away.
Nurses should notify a supervisor right away about any exposures. The fact that nurses are frequently reluctant to disclose quickly away is one of the biggest issues. It's possible that they don't want to "dump" their work on others, and they occasionally worry about being punished for reporting a sharps injury. Some people even refuse to report because they are too shocked or afraid to face the potential of getting sick. To assist stop the spread of bloodborne diseases, treatment should start right once rather than delaying reporting.
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The complete question should be:
"While administering a medication via a syringe, a client sharply moves and the nurse accidentally encounters a needlestick. what is the priority nursing action?
A. Request counseling on the potential for infection.
B. Document the injury.
C. Report the needle stick to the nurse manager.
D. Obtain the client's blood to be tested for HIV and HBV."
the nurse discovers a new prescription for rho(d) immune globulin for a client who is about to undergo a diagnostic procedure. the nurse will administer the rho(d) immune globulin after which procedure?
The nurse locates a fresh RhoGAM prescription for a patient who is ready to have diagnosis testing done. After the amniocentesis operation, the nurse will provide the RhoGAM.
What is Diagnosis?Identification of a given phenomenon's nature and origin is known as diagnosis.The process of diagnosis, which varies in how it uses logic, analytics, and experience to ascertain "cause and effect," is employed in a wide range of fields.It is often used to identify the origins of symptoms, mitigating factors, and remedies in systems engineering and computer science.finding a disease, ailment, or injury based on its signs and symptomsTo aid with the diagnosis, a physical examination, medical history, and testing such blood tests, imaging tests, and biopsies may be employed.To know more about Diagnosis, refer to the following link:
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a resident of a nursing home keeps trying to get out of bed to use the bathroom, despite having a urinary catheter in place. which intervention will best preserve this client's safety and could be used as an alternative to restraints?
Physical safety hazards, chemical hazards, biological hazards, physical hazards, and ergonomic hazard factors
Which intervention is most essential for maintaining the safety of a restrained client?
A client with a restraint should be reviewed every 30 minutes, not every 2 hours, to ensure client safety. The restraint should not be too friendly or too loose. The nurse should check the client's circulation and confirm that there is room to insert two finger widths between the control and the client.
What is the most essential thing to keep in mind to ensure your security at the workplace?
The best way to keep yourself safe is to be mindful of your surroundings. The more aware you are with your tasks and workplace, the more aware you'll be of the potential dangers. Knowing your surroundings and being aware of potential threats will help you and your co-workers avoid unnecessary or dangerous conditions.
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a ventilator-dependent patient is being ventilated with a bag-valve mask as he is transported to the hospital. which finding is the best indication that the patient is being adequately ventilated during transport?
which professional is most likely to make use of amperes and candelas? athletic coach athletic coach nurse practitioner nurse practitioner electrical engineer electrical engineer marine biologist
the nurse is teaching a pregnant client some nonpharmacologic ways to handle common situations encountered during pregnancy. the nurse determines the session is successful when the client correctly chooses which condition that can be minimized if she avoids drinking fluids with her meals?
The nurse is demonstrating non-pharmacologic techniques for dealing with typical pregnancy-related circumstances to a pregnant client. When the client makes the right decision, the nurse judges the session as a success. If she refrains from consuming liquids with her meals, her heartburn will be less severe.
Non-pharmacologic means what?Non-pharmacological pain therapy describes methods for treating pain that don't use drugs.Non-pharmacological therapies aim to provide patients a sense of control while reducing fear, anguish, and worry as well as pain.Any sort of health intervention that is not based largely on medicine is referred to as a non-pharmaceutical intervention or non-pharmacological intervention.Examples include food modifications, exercise, and better sleep.The treatment of pain without the use of drugs is known as non-pharmacological pain management.To more effectively control and lessen pain, this technique makes use of strategies to change thoughts and concentrate.To learn more about Non-pharmacologic, refer to the following link:
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what is the purpose of a gait belt? group of answer choices it measures the distance a patient has ambulated. it provides a means to steady a patient at the center of gravity or to transfer a patient safely without pulling on the patient’s body. it identifies patients who are at risk for a fall and who require a physical therapist to ambulate. it keeps a patient from ambulating too fast. it is a type of restraint.
Wash cutting boards after each use to prevent the spread of A) Bacteria
B) Disease
C) Germs
D) Both A and C are correct
What should occur if a physician on scene performs an intervention that is outside of the paramedic's scope of practice?
If a physician on scene performs an intervention that is outside of the paramedic's scope of practice the physician is required to accompany the patient in the back of the ambulance.
What distinguishes a doctor from a physician?
A person who has completed medical school and holds an MD or a similar degree is known as a doctor in the medical field. Doctors also include dentists, optometrists, chiropractors, clinical psychologists, and podiatrists. Regardless of specialty, clinicians having an MD, DO, or MB are considered physicians.
What are the obligations and tasks of paramedics?
Respond to 911 calls for emergency medical help, such as doing CPR or bandaging a wound.Identify a patient's ailment and choose a treatment plan.Give sick or injured patients first aid treatment or life support services.In an ambulance, carefully transport patients.To learn more about paramedical click on the link below:
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Question:
What should occur if a physician on scene performs an intervention that is outside of the paramedics scope if practice?
A) the paramedic is required to disallow the physician to perform the intervention.
B) the physician is required to accompany the patient in the back of the ambulance.
C) the medical director must authorize the physician to perform the intervention.
D) the paramedic must allow the intervention and then transport the patient.
When new phenomenon arise, psychologists develop new research studies to generate knowledge on that new phenomenon
The new phenomenon can be used new research subjects as follows:
What exactly is the phenomena in a study?Any issue, problem, or topic that is selected as the focus of an investigation might be considered a research phenomenon.
The phenomena may have its roots in a theoretical field, the real world, or even a unique experience or insight.
What does a psychological phenomenon mean?A phenomenon, in a broader sense, is a fundamental psychological process with theoretically inferred causes and effects that explains human cognitions, emotions, and behaviors.
It is debatable as to whether ego depletion is a phenomenon or a consequence.
What is a research phenomenon example?Occurrence across the sciences
Things that happen naturally—phenomena—occur or show up without human intervention.
Gravity, tides, moons, planets, volcanic lightning, starling swarms, ant armies, sandstorms, and biological phenomena are a few examples of natural phenomena.
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What industry's workers experience the most nonfatal workplace violence compared to other professions by a wide margin?
Answer:
??? what are the answers
Explanation:
According to Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS) data, healthcare and social assistance workers experience the most nonfatal workplace violence compared to workers in other professions by a wide margin.
What are healthcare workers?In 2019, healthcare and social assistance workers experienced 73% of all nonfatal workplace violence incidents, despite comprising only 16% of the workforce. The BLS defines workplace violence as any act or threat of physical violence, harassment, intimidation, or other threatening behavior that occurs at the work site. Within the healthcare and social assistance industries, workers in psychiatric and substance abuse hospitals, emergency departments, and residential care facilities experience the highest rates of workplace violence.
Hence, according to Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS) data, healthcare and social assistance workers experience the most nonfatal workplace violence compared to workers in other professions by a wide margin.
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a client in labor has requested the administration of opioids to reduce pain. at 2 cm cervical dilation (dilatation), she says that she is managing the pain well at this point but does not want it to get ahead of her. what should the nurse do?
A client in labor has requested the administration of opioids to reduce pain. At 2 cm cervical dilation (dilatation), she says that she is managing the pain well at this point but does not want it to get ahead of her. The nurse will encourage the client to delay taking the medication, if at all feasible, to avoid delaying the labor.
Opioids- Opioids on prescription can be given by doctors to treat moderate to severe pain, but they include a host of dangers and side effects. Common types include morphine, methadone, hydrocodone (Vicodin), oxycodone (OxyContin), and others.
Cervical dilation- The cervix thins, softens, relaxes, and dilates in response to uterine contractions, making it simple for the cervix to pass over the presenting foetal part during labour. In late pregnancy, the hyaluronic acid content of the cervix increases. More water molecules are intercalating between the collagen strands as a result.
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When a government fines and/or imprisons persons convicted of using illegal drugs, the government is attempting to decrease the illegal drug trade by shifting the ________ curve for illegal drugs ________.
When a government fines and/or imprisons persons convicted of using illegal drugs, the government is attempting to decrease the illegal drug trade by shifting the demand curve for illegal drugs leftward.
In the field of business, we can describe a demand curve as the relationship that occurs between the price of a product and the demand that is has in the market.
When the government fines or imprisons people for using illegal drugs, then the demand for illegal drugs decreases in the market. As a result, the demand curve moves in the negative i.e leftward direction. When the demand of a product is lowered, its price also gets lowered.
On the other hand, if the demand of a product increases in the market, then the demand curve moves in a positive direction.
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If penalties are imposed only on the buyers of illegal drugs, the equilibrium price of illegal drugs will ________ and the equilibrium quantity will ________.
If penalties are imposed only on the buyers of illegal drugs, the equilibrium price of illegal drugs will fall and the equilibrium quantity will decrease.
What is meant by equilibrium price?A market-clearing price, often referred to as an equilibrium price, is the consumer cost associated with a good or service when supply and demand are equal or nearly equal. The manufacturer or vendor is free to transfer as many units as they like, and the consumer is free to access as many units as they like. Economic equilibrium in economics refers to a scenario where supply and demand are balanced and the values of economic variables do not change in the absence of external factors.
At the equilibrium price, there is neither a scarcity nor an excess of the good because buyers and sellers are both willing to purchase the same amount. Sellers can sell the quantity they want to sell at the market price, and buyers can purchase the quantity they want to purchase at the market price.
Hence, If penalties are imposed only on the buyers of illegal drugs, the equilibrium price of illegal drugs will fall and the equilibrium quantity will decrease.
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If penalties are only imposed on the buyers of illegal drugs, the equilibrium price of illegal drugs will fall and the equilibrium quantity will decrease. This is because there would be fewer buyers willing to purchase illegal drugs at a higher price, and thus, the quantity demanded would decrease.
This would lead to a decrease in the equilibrium price of illegal drugs, as suppliers would be willing to sell at a lower price in order to find buyers. In turn, this would lead to a decrease in the equilibrium quantity of illegal drugs, as there would be less of a market for these drugs.
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Why do second-generation h1 blockers cause less sedation then first-generation h1 blockers?
Second-generation h1 blockers cause less sedation than first-generation h1 blockers because they do not cross the blood-brain-barrier.
What are H1 histamine receptors?
D-chlorpheniramine (d-CPA) and diphenhydramine are examples of first-generation H1 histamine receptor antagonists that cause sleepiness in people. Presently, they are utilized as over-the-counter sleep aids. Due to their diverse, receptor-independent activities, these H1 histamine receptor antagonists cause sleepiness; nevertheless, the mechanisms underlying these effects are still unknown. Ketotifen, an H1 histamine receptor antagonist of the second generation, is more permeable to the brain than more recent H1 histamine receptor antagonists. In order to access sleep-inducing profiles through H1 histamine receptor blocking actions, the current study evaluated the dose-dependent effects of diphenhydramine and ketotifen on daily sleep-wake rhythms in rats.
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A client has burning upon urination. the urinalysis indicates pyuria. which is the next action the nurse will take?
In a case whereby A client has burning upon urination and the urinalysis indicates pyuria the next action the nurse will take is to Contact the health care provider .
What is pyuria?Pyuria can be described as the condition which do occur in patients as a result of the increased rise in the level of white blood cells in urine.
It should be noted that this can as well be caused as a result of urinary tract infection due sterile pyuria, , therefore in this case whereby A client has burning upon urination and the urinalysis indicates pyuria the next action the nurse will take is to Contact the health care provider for solutions.
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the nurse is assisting a pregnant client who underwent a nonstress test that was ruled reactive. which factor will the nurse point out when questioned by the client about the results?
Option b) The fetal heart rate increases with activity and indicates fetal well-being.
How does a non-stress test work?A typical prenatal test to evaluate a baby’s health is a nonstress test. The baby’s heart rate is observed during a non-stress test to evaluate how it reacts to the baby’s movements.
Nonstress refers to the fact that no efforts are made throughout the test to stress the infant.
A positive non-stress test is what?Your kid is receiving enough oxygen and is doing well, according to a normal NST. If the results are out of the ordinary, your doctor might advise more testing.
An NST can yield one of two outcomes. Reactive: This indicates that at least twice during the test, your baby’s heart rate increased to the desired level.
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Consider a disease in which there is no cure. once a person is infected, they have the disease for life. in a population where no one moves in or out (i.e., a steady-state population), how could the prevalence of such a disease increase over time while the incidence remains the same? explain.
The prevalence of such a disease increases over time while the incidence remains the same as there are no people moving in and out and more people are catching the disease.
In the field of science, prevalence can be described as the particular rate at which a disease occurs in a population.
The prevalence of a disease depends on two factors which are incidence rate and average duration of disease.
As there are no movements in the above-mentioned population, then this means that more and more people in the population will be affected by this disease with the passage of time. However, the rate of spread of this disease i.e incidence rate will remain the same. For the incidence rate to increase, there shall be factors which promote the quick spreading of this disease.
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a nurse is assisting a client who is in the first stage of labor. which principle should the nurse keep in mind to help make this client's labor and birth as natural as possible?
The Nurse should keep in mind that women should be able to move about freely throughout labor.
Describe labor .
The process by which your child leaves the uterus is known as labor (also known as childbirth) (womb). When your cervix changes due to frequent contractions, you are in labor. The uterine muscles contract during a contraction before relaxing. Contractions aid in ejecting your unborn child from your womb.
The following are six key ideas that help labor and delivery be as natural as possible: Labor should start naturally without being artificially induced; women should be free to move around during labor rather than being confined to a bed; they should receive constant support from a caring person during labor; routine use of interventions like intravenous fluids should be avoided; women should be allowed to give birth in a nonsupine position such as upright or side-lying; and mother and baby should be housed together after the birth with unlimted access to food and water.
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